1.) Which one among the following cases deals with the issue of inter-state migrant worker?

(A) Labourer working on Salal Hydro Projects vs. State of Jammu & Kashmir (1984) 3 SCC 538

(B) People’s Union for Democratic Right. vs. Union of India, AIR 1982 SC 1473

(C) Dharangadhra Chemical Works Ltd. vs. State of Saurashtra, AIR 1967 SC 264

(D) Workmen of Dimakuchi Tea Estate vs. Management of Dimakuchi Tea Estate, AIR 1958 SC 353

ANS. A

2.) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Case)

1. Pradeep Kumar Biswas v. Indian Institute of Chemical Biology (2002) 5 SCC 111
2. Manisha Priyadarshini v. Aurobindo College-Evening, LPA 595/2019
3. People’s Union for Democratic Rights v. Union of India, AIR 1982 SC 1473
4. State of Gujarat v. Sri Ambika Mills (1974) 4 SCC 656

List II (Related Propositions)

1. Articles 14, 21 and the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
2. Article 24, the Minimum Wages Act, 1948
3. Article 12
4. Unpaid accumulation under the Bombay Welfare Fund Act, 1953

Code:

(A) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

(B) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

(C) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

(D) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

ANS. C

3.) Which one among the following provisions relating to welfare is not provided under Part IV of the Constitution of India?

(A) Maternity relief

(B) Equal pay for equal work

(C) Right to form trade unions

(D) Living wage for workers

ANS. C

4.) The concept of “equal pay for equal work” under Article 39(d) of the Constitution of India applies to:

(A) Persons possessing qualifications only

(B) Persons appointed to the same post

(C) All men and women

(D) All persons appointed on permanent basis only

ANS. C

5.) Which one among the following provisions do not find mention in the Constitution of India?

(A) Men and women equally have the right to an adequate means of livelihood

(B) Every worker must be given a minimum of 8 days paid leave in a year

(C) Children and youth are protected against exploitation

(D) None can be forced to do beggar

ANS. B

6.) The State, under Part IV of the Constitution of India, is required to secure:

(A) Fair wage to workers by law

(B) Living wage to all workers

(C) Living wage to all workers in the industrial sector only

(D) Living wage only to workers in the organised sector

ANS. B

7.) The provision of ‘just and humane conditions of work’, envisaged under the Constitution of India, has been reflected in which one among the following statutes?

(A) The Payment of Wages Act, 1936

(B) The Employees Compensation Act, 1923

(C) The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972

(D) The Factories Act, 1948

ANS. D

8.)  People’s Union for Democratic Rights v. Union of India, AIR 1982 SC 1473 dealt with:

(A) Payment of minimum wages to the workers working in various Commonwealth Games projects

(B) Health of workers

(C) Payment of minimum wages to the workers working in Asian Games projects

(D) Payment of wages to workers in brick kiln industries

ANS. C

9.) Which one among the following cases does not pertain to Articles 23 and 24 of the Constitution of India?

(A) Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board v. A. Rajappa, AIR 1978 SC 548

(B) Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India, AIR 1984 SC 802

(C) M.C. Mehta v. State of Tamil Nadu, AIR 1997 SC 699

(D) People’s Union for Democratic Rights v. Union of India, AIR 1982 SC 1473

ANS. A

10.) Which one among the following cases was filed as a writ petition under Article 32 of the Constitution of India which pertained to the occupational health hazards and diseases to the workmen employed in asbestos industries?

(A) A. Sundarambal v. Government of Goa, Daman and Diu, AIR 1988 SC 1700

(B) Consumer Education Research and Centre v. Union of India, AIR 1995 SC 922

(C) Rohtas Industries Staff Union v. State of Bihar, AIR 1963 Pat 170

(D) Workmen of Dimakuchi Tea Estate v. Management of Dimakuchi Tea Estate, AIR 1958 SC 353

ANS. B

11.) Which one among the following cases is referred as the ‘Sivakasi fire cracker case’?

(A) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1988 SC 1037

(B) M.C. Mehta v. State of Tamil Nadu, AIR 1983 SC 1055

(C) M.C. Mehta v. Union AIR 1987 SC 1086

(D) M.C. Mehta v. State of Tamil Nadu, AIR 1997 SC 699

ANS. D

12.) Which one among the following provisions of the Constitution of India enables the State to impose compulsory service for public purpose?

(A) Article 25(1)

(B) Article 24

(C) Article 23(1)

(D) Article 23(2)

ANS. D

13.) Which one among the following propositions was laid down by the Supreme Court in Randhir Singh v. Union of India, AIR 1982 SC 879?

(A) Right to assemble peacefully and without arms

(B) Equal pay for equal work

(C) Responsibility of the State to provide free legal aid

(D) Participation of workers in management of industries

ANS. B

14.) Which of the following legislations is related to Article 23(1) of the Constitution of India?

(A) The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976

(B) The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986

(C) The Factories Act, 1948

(D) The Mines Act, 1952

ANS. A

15.) Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the decision of the Supreme Court in Employees Provident Fund Organisation v. Sunil Kumar, SLP (C) Nos. 8658-8659/2019?

(A) All employees who had retired prior to 1st September, 2014 were entitled to the benefit of the decision in the above case.

(B) The employees were entitled to the benefit of the above decision if they had retired prior to 1st September, 2014 after exercising option provided in 11(3) of the pre-amended Employees’ Pension Scheme, 1995 as amended by the Central Government.

(C) The directions issued in R.C. Gupta v. Regional Provident Fund Commissioner (2018) 14 SCC 809 were directed to be complied with by the court in the above case.

(D) The Supreme Court held as ultra vires the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, the requirement of the members to contribute at the rate of 1·16 percent of their salary to the extent such salary exceeded Rs. 15,000 per month as additional contribution.

ANS. A

16.)  On which one among the following subjects, can State Legislatures not make law?

(A) Trade Union

(B) Labour Welfare

(C) Regulation of labour in mines

(D) Social insurance

ANS. C

17.) Consider the following statements with reference to the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948:

1. No employee can be punished during the period he is entitled to sickness benefit.
2. No person shall be entitled to sickness benefit on any day on which he works or remains on leave or on a holiday in respect of which he receives wages or on any day on which he remains on strike

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS. C

18.) Under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948, any arrears of amount due from a factory or an establishment may be recovered, from the principal or immediate employer by distraint and sale of its or his movable property in the manner laid down in:

(A) Second Schedule of the Income Tax Act, 1961

(B) Third Schedule of the Income Tax Act, 1961

(C) Fourth Schedule of the Income Tax Act, 1961

(D) First Schedule of the Income Tax Act, 1961

ANS. B

19.) Which one of the following is not a benefit under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948?

(A) Sickness benefit

(B) Maternity benefit

(C) Child Education Benefit

(D) Funeral expenses

ANS. C

20.) Consider the following statements with reference to the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948:

1. The Act applies to all factories
2. Every factory must be registered.
3. An accident arising in the course of an employee’s employment shall always be held to have arisen out of employment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

ANS. B

21.) After the receipt of any appeal under Section 11(1) under the Building and Other Construction Workers’ Welfare Cess Act, 1996, the appellate authority shall dispose of the appeal within:

(A) sixty days

(B) ninety days

(C) one hundred and twenty days

(D) such time as the appellate authority can do as expeditiously as possible

ANS. D

22.) Whoever, being liable to pay cess under the Building and Other Construction Workers’ Welfare Cess Act, 1996, wilfully evades or attempts to evade the payment of such cess shall be punishable with:

(A) imprisonment which may extend to one month or with fine or both.

(B) imprisonment which may extend to six months or with fine or both.

(C) imprisonment which may extend to one year or with fine up to maximum Rs. 2,000 or both.

(D) imprisonment which may extend to one year or with fine up to maximum Rs. 1,000 or both

ANS. B

23.) ‘A’, while travelling in a State Transport Corporation bus from his residence to the place of his work meets with an accident in the depot of the said State Transport Corporation as a result of which he dies. The accident takes place at 8:00 am and his shift was to start at 10:00 am His dependents claim compensation under the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923. Are they entitled to get compensation?

(A) They will not be entitled to any compensation as the shift was to start at 10:00 am.

(B) They would be entitled to compensation

(C) They would have been entitled to the compensation had the accident taken place in the premises of the employer during hours of his employment

(D) They would have been entitled had the accident occurred because of the hazards attached to the job of the deceased.

ANS. C

24.) Which of the following statements as per the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 are correct?

1. The Act applies to certain classes of employers.
2. The employee must be employed in any of the occupations specified in Schedule II of the Act.
3. The Central Government or the State Government may add any class of persons employed in any occupation to Schedule II.
4. The Act lays down time limit of six months for disposal of the claim of compensation from the date of reference.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1, 3 and 4

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 2 and 3 only

ANS. C

25.) In which of the following circumstances shall an employer be held liable for compensation to the employee under the provisions of the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923?

1. Any injury which does not result in the total or partial disablement exceeding two days
2. Any injury (not resulting in death or permanent total disablement) caused by an accident which is directly attributable to the employee, having been at the time thereof, under the influence of drink or drugs.
3. Any injury (not resulting in death or permanent total disablement) caused due to the wilful disobedience of the employee to a rule expressly framed, or an order expressly given, for the purpose of securing the safety of employees.
4. If the employer proves that the accident is due to wilful removal or disregard by the employee of any safety guard or other device which he knew to have been provided for the purpose of securing security of employee.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 2, 3 and 4 only

(C) 3 and 4 only

(D) 1 and 2 only

ANS. DROP

26.) In which one among the following cases, the Supreme Court observed that the gratuity is no longer in the realm of charity but a statutory right provided in favour of employee?

(A) State of Kerala v. M. Padmanabhan Nair (1985)

(B) Beed District Central Co-operative Bank Ltd. v. State of Maharashtra (2006)

(C) T.I. Cycles of India, Ambattur v. M.K. Gurumani (2001)

(D) Union of India v. All India Services Pensioners Association (1988)

ANS. A

27.) Section 7 of the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 provides:

(A) exemption to employer from liability in certain cases.

(B) for recovery of gratuity.

(C) procedure for determination of the amount of gratuity.

(D) for protection of gratuity.

ANS. C

28.) Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, if an employee has a family at the time of making a nomination, the nomination shall be made in favour of one or more members of her/his family, and any nomination made by such employee in favour of a person who is not a member of his family, shall be:

(A) valid.

(B) voidable

(C) void.

(D) permissible on submitting an affidavit by the employee.

ANS. C

29.) Under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, if a woman dies before receiving maternity benefit amount, the same shall be paid to:

1. the State.
2. the person nominated by the woman in the notice under Section 6 of the Act
3. her legal representative, if she has not nominated a nominee.
4. the person nominated by the woman in the notice under Section 6 as well as to her legal representative equally

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 2 only

(B) 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 4

ANS. C

30.) Section 25 of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 authorises:

1. State Government to give directions to Inspectors regarding the carrying into execution of its provisions.
2. Central Government to give directions to a State Government regarding the carrying into execution of its provisions.
3. Inspectors to give directions to the employers regarding the carrying into execution of its provisions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 1 and 2 only

(D) 2 and 3 only

ANS. B

31.) For which one of the following matters under the Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008, it is not mandatory for the Central Government to formulate and notify suitable welfare schemes for unorganised workers?

(A) Life and disability cover

(B)Health and maternity benefit

(C) Employment injury benefit

(D) Old age protection

ANS. C

32.) Any scheme notified by a State Government under the Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008 may be funded:

1. wholly by the State Government.
2. partly through contribution collected from beneficiaries
3. by financial assistance from the Central Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 3 only

ANS. C

33.) As per the Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008 Unorganised Worker’ includes a worker in the organized sector who is not covered by:

(A) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

(B) The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970.

(C) The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948.

(D) The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972.

ANS. DROP

34.) As per Section 11 of the Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008, the Central Government, in respect of matters relating to the implementation of the provisions of the Act, cannot give direction to:

(A) National Social Security Board

(B) State Social Security Board.

(C) the Government of a State

(D) Local bodies.

ANS. D

35.) Which one of the following is not considered a Central Government’s welfare scheme under the Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008?

(A) Janani Suraksha Yojana

(B) Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana

(C) Ayushman Bharat Yojana

(D) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana

ANS. C

36.) Every employee shall be entitled to be paid bonus by his employer in an accounting year, in accordance with the provisions of the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, provided he has worked in the establishment for not less than:

(A) thirty working days

(B) sixty working days

(C) one hundred working days

(D) one hundred and twenty days.

ANS. A

37.) An employee shall be disqualified from receiving bonus, if he is dismissed from service for:

(A) participation in an illegal strike.

(B) participation in a go-slow strike

(C) fraud.

(D) absenting from duty on account of continued ill-health.

ANS. C

38.) Section 25 of the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, deals with:

(A) eligibility for bonus

(B) recovery of bonus due from an employer.

(C) audit of accounts of employers, not being corporations or companies

(D) set on and set off of allocable surplus

ANS. C

39.) If a person contravenes any of the provisions of the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 or any rule made thereunder or to whom a direction is given or a requisition is made under the Act fails to comply with the direction requisition shall be punishable with:

(A) imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months.

(B) imprisonment for a minimum term of three months extendable up to 3 years or with a fine of up to Rs. 1,000 or both

(C) imprisonment for a term of one month or with a fine or both.

(D) imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months or with a fine which may extend to Rs. 1,000 or with both

ANS. D

40.) Which one of the following charges is not deductible under Section 5 of the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 for the purpose determining “available surplus”?

(A) Depreciation admissible Income Tax Act, 1961

(B) Development rebate which the employer is entitled to deduct

(C) Direct tax payable by the employer

(D) Deduction not mentioned in Section 7 of the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 in the payment of any direct tax allowed under any law for the development of any industry

ANS. D

41.) Under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, State Government is ‘Appropriate Government’ if industrial establishment is:

(A) under the control of railway administration.

(B) a minor port.

(C) a mine

(D) an oil-field

ANS. B

42.) Which one of the following bodies is not constituted under the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970?

(A) Central Advisory Board

(B) Joint Advisory Board

(C) State Advisory Board

(D) Committees constituted by the Central Advisory Board

ANS. B

43.) Which of the following factors should be taken into account by the appropriate Government before it issues notification prohibiting the employment of contract labour under the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970?

1. Whether the process, operation or other work is incidental to or necessary for the industry, trade, business, manufacture or occupation that is carried on in the establishment
2. Whether it is done ordinarily through regular workmen in that establishment or other similar establishments
3. Whether it is of perennial nature, that is to say, it is of sufficient duration having regard to the nature of industry, trade, business, manufacture or occupation that is carried on in the establishment

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

ANS. D

44.) Which one among the following welfare and health provisions is not included in the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970?

(A) Creche

(B) Canteens

(C) Restrooms

(D) First-aid facilities

ANS. A

45.) Where the contractor fails to make payment of wages within the prescribed period to a contract labour under the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970, it shall be the duty of which among the following to pay such wages to the contract labour?

(A) State Government

(B) Central Government

(C) Principal Employer

(D) State/Central Advisory Board, as the case may be

ANS. C

46.) The Government issues notification under Section 10(1) of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 prohibiting employment of contract labour in loading and unloading activities in the industrial establishments in State X. There are large number of contract labour engaged by principal employers through contractors in their establishments. What is/are the effect(s) of the notification on contract labour in such activities?

1. Contract labour automatically become employees of the principal employer
2. Contract labour do not automatically become employees of the principal employer
3. Contract labour has the right to get its dispute relating to engagement of services by the principal employer espoused by the workers or worker’s union and seek reference of the same to the Labour Court/lndustrial Tribunal for adjudication of their demand of regularization of services with the principal employer.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1 and 3 only

ANS. B

47.) Under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, which one of the following is not a ground on which deductions can be made from wages payable?

(A) House accommodation supplied by the employer or any Government authority or any housing

(B) Absence from duty

(C) Bonus paid under the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965

(D) Damage to, or loss of, goods which are expressly entrusted to the employed person for custody

ANS. C

48.) Which one of the following statements with regard to Inspectors’ under Section 14 of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, is not correct?

(A) Inspectors appointed under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 are not public servants’ as defined under the Indian Penal Code, 1860.

(B) An Inspector of Factories appointed under the Factories Act, 1948 shall be an inspector for the purposes of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936.

(C) The appropriate Government may appoint Inspectors for the purposes of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 in respect of all persons employed upon a railway (otherwise than in a factory) to whom the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 applies.

(D) The appropriate Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint such other persons as it thinks fit to be Inspectors for the purposes of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936

ANS. A

49.) Under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the rule-making power of the appropriate Government vests under:

(A) Section 26(1)

(B) Section 25A

(C) Section 22

(D) Section 16

ANS. A

50.) Which of the following statements in case of death of the employed person, under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 is/are correct?

1. The balance of wages payable is to be paid to the person nominated by the employed person in this behalf in accordance with the rules made under the Act.
2. Where no such nomination has been made or where for any reasons, such amounts cannot be paid to the person so nominated, the amount payable has to be deposited with the prescribed authority.
3. Once the balance of wages payable is deposited by the employer with the prescribed authority, the employer shall be discharged of his liability to pay those wages

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

ANS. D

51.) The minimum rate of wages fixed by the appropriate Government in respect of the scheduled employment under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 does not include:

(A) A basic rate of wages with or without the cost of living allowance

(B) A basic rate of wages and a special allowance at a rate to be adjusted to accord as nearly as practicable with the variation in the cost of living index.

(C) An all-inclusive rate allowing for the basic rate, the cost of living allowance and cash value of the concessions, if any.

(D) A basic rate of wages, including the house rent allowance to be adjusted with the variation in the cost of living index.

ANS. D

52.) In fixing or revising the minimum rate of wages under Section 3 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, different minimum rate of wages cannot be fixed for:

(A) different localities

(B) adults, adolescents, children and apprentices

(C) male and female workers.

(D) different scheduled employments

ANS. C

53.) Which one of the following statements with respect to the payment of wages in kind’ under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 is not correct?

(A) Where it has been the custom to pay wages wholly or partly in kind, the appropriate Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, authorize the payment of minimum wages either wholly or partly in kind

(B) If the appropriate Government is of the opinion that provision should be made for the supply of essential commodities at concessional rates, it may, by notification in the Official Gazette, authorize the provision of such supplies at concessional rates.

(C) The cash value of wages in kind and of concessions in respect of supplies of essential commodities shall be estimated in the manner prescribed by the Act.

(D) Minimum wages may be payable either in kind or in the form of an essential commodity’ which can be made convertible on pro rata basis

ANS. D

54.) Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to fixing the number of hours for a normal working day under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948?

(A) Fixation of the number of hours of work which shall constitute a normal working day, inclusive of one or more specified intervals

(B) Provision for a day of rest in every period of seven days for all employees or any specified class of employees

(C) Provision for grant of payment for work on a day of rest at a rate which is not less than the overtime rate

(D) Fixation of the number of hours of work which shall not exceed eight hours a day inclusive of one or more specified intervals

ANS. D

55.) The appropriate Government, under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, may not fix:

(A) a minimum time rate.

(B) a minimum piece rate.

(C) a guaranteed time rate.

(D) a guaranteed overtime rate.

ANS. D

56.) Under Section 16 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, where an employee does two or more classes of work for each of which a different minimum rate of wage applies, he shall be paid:

(A) rate of wage whichever is higher.

(B) rate of wage as may be prescribed by the appropriate Government

(C) rate of wages as fixed by the employer under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946.

(D) rate of wages in respect of the time respectively occupied in each such class of work, wages at not less than the minimum rate in force in respect of each such class

ANS. D

57.) Under which one of the following situations will the employer be exempted from criminal liability for non-payment of wages under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948?

(A) That he has contravened Section 11 of the Act and paid wages in kind for articles which are essential commodities

(B) That he has contravened the provision of Section 3(2) of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948

(C) That he has contravened the provisions of Section 3(3) of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948

(D) That another person has committed the offence without his knowledge, consent or connivance

ANS. D

58.) Under Section 3(3) of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, wages may not be fixed in which one of the following wage periods?

(A) By the hour

(B) By the day

(C) By the week

(D) By the month

ANS. C

59.) For the purposes of the Building and Other Construction Workers’ of (Regulation Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1996, there shall be levied and collected a cess at such rate of the cost of construction incurred by an employer not exceeding:

(A) four percent

(B) six percent

(C) two percent

(D) one percent

ANS. C

60.) Who can exempt any employer or class of employers in a State from the payment of cess payable under the Building and Other Construction Workers’ Welfare Cess Act, 1996, where such cess is already levied and payable under any corresponding law in force in the State?

(A) President of India

(B) Government of the State

(C) Central Government

(D) State Government

ANS. C

61.) The definition of “building or other construction work” provided in the Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1996 is not applicable to which of the following building or other construction works?

1. In relation to Railways
2. In relation to overseas communication
3. In which the provisions of Factories Act, 1948 apply
4. In which the provisions of the Mines Act, 1952 apply

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1, 3 and 4

(B) 3 and 4 only 

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 4 only

ANS. B

62.) Under the provisions of the Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1996, every employer shall constitute a Safety Committee in every establishment wherein:

(A) five hundred or more building workers are ordinarily employed.

(B) three hundred or more building workers are ordinarily employed.

(C) two hundred and fifty building workers are ordinarily employed.

(D) one hundred or more building workers are ordinarily employed.

ANS. A

63.) A building worker registered as a beneficiary under the Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1996 shall contribute to the Building and Other Construction Workers’ Welfare Fund until he attains the age of:

(A) Fifty years

(B) Fifty-five years

(C) Sixty years

(D) Sixty-two years

ANS. C

64.) Which among the following is not an industry under Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?

(A) ONGC

(B) University of Delhi

(C) Doordarshan

(D) Physical Research Laboratory

ANS. D

65.) Which one of the following statements with regard to the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 is not correct?

(A) Right of an employer to suspend his employee is a managerial prerogative.

(B) Order of suspension does not automatically put to an end the employer-employee relationship.

(C) Payment of subsistence allowance during disciplinary proceedings is purely discretionary for the employer.

(D) Payment of subsistence allowance during disciplinary proceedings is obligatory to enable an employee to prepare his defense and for his wherewithal.

ANS. C

66.) Section 11A was inserted in the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 to implement:

(A) ILO recommendation No. 80.

(B) ILO recommendation No. 111.

(C) ILO recommendation No. 119.

(D) ILO recommendation No. 128.

ANS. C

67.) Which of the following are not per se ‘Industrial Dispute’ under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?

1. Suspension of a workman by the employer
2. Withholding of increment of a workman by the management as a punishment
3. Retrenchment of an individual workman
4. Termination of the services of a junior doctor in a Government hospital

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 3 and 4 only

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 1 and 2 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

ANS. B

68.) Which of the following do not fall within the scope of powers of the Labour Court/Industrial Tribunal under Section 11A of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?

1. Discharge
2. Dismissal
3. Reduction in rank
4. Suspension

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 only

(C) 3 only

(D) 3 and 4 only

ANS. D

69.) Which one among the following legal propositions was not laid down by the Supreme Court in State of Bombay v. K.P. Krishnan, AIR 1960 SC 1223 with reference to the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?

(A) Power of Government under Section 10(1) is administrative in nature.

(B) Power of Government under Section 10(1) is wide and absolute.

(C) Second proviso to Section 10(1) gives no discretion to the Government in the matter of making reference to the Labour Court/Industrial Tribunal.

(D) Section 12(5) gives power to the appropriate Government to make reference of an industrial dispute independent of Section 10(1) to the Labour Court/Industrial Tribunal.

ANS. D

70.) In Life Insurance Corporation of India v. D.J. Bahadur, AIR 1980 SC 2181, the Supreme Court held that once a notice of termination of settlement has been given under Section 19 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 and period of two months has expired, the parties to the settlement shall:

(A) not be bound by terms of the said settlement after the expiry of two months after notice, even if it results in a vacuum.

(B) continue to be bound by the said settlement until it is replaced by a new settlement or an award.

(C) be free to raise an industrial dispute on the subject matter of the settlement.

(D) be free to resort to voluntary arbitration on the subject matter of the settlement.

ANS. B

71.) A strike in a non-public utility service is not illegal under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 if it is declared or commenced during the pendency of:

(A) conciliation proceedings before conciliation officer.

(B) proceedings before a Labour Court.

(C) arbitration proceedings before an arbitrator where notification under Sub-Section 3A of Section 10A has been issued by the appropriate Government.

(D) conciliation proceedings before a board.

ANS. A

72.) Under Section 17B of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, during the pendency of proceedings relating to dismissal, discharge or retrenchment before a Constitutional Court, the employer is not liable to pay full wages to a workman if award directing reinstatement of workman is passed by:

(A) Labour Court

(B) Civil Court

(C) Industrial Tribunal

(D) National Tribunal

ANS. B

73.) Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, who among the following is a ‘protected workman’?

(A) Member of the executive or office bearer of a trade union

(B) A workman recognized as protected workman by the employer

(C) A person employed in an industry recognized as protected workman by the employer

(D) Member of the executive or office bearer of a registered trade union connected with the establishment, who is recognized as protected workman by the employer

ANS. D

74.) Who among the following category of employees are not entitled to form trade unions and get the same registered under the Trade Unions Act, 1926?

(A) Teachers employed in Government-run schools

(B) Supervisory staff drawing salary of Rs. 35,000 per month in the Ministry of Railways

(C) Clerical staff employed in the district courts in Delhi

(D) Peons employed in the Ministry of Civil Aviation

ANS. B

75.) Not less than how many of the total number of the office-bearers of every registered trade union in an unorganized sector shall be persons actually engaged or employed in an industry with which the trade union is connected?

(A) One-fifth

(B) One-fourth

(C) One-third

(D) One-half

ANS. D

76.) ‘X’ and ‘Y’ and are two registered trade unions of workers in MB Cotton Mills. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ have membership of 150 and 120, respectively. Both the trade unions want to amalgamate as one trade union — ‘XY’. In ‘X’, 110 members cast their votes and in ‘Y’, 70 members cast their votes to decide for or against the amalgamation. What is the minimum of the votes recorded, that is required to decide in favour of amalgamation?

(A) 90

(B) 100 

(C) 108

(D) 135

ANS. C

77.) If the membership of a registered Trade Union in a financial year did not exceed 250, annual audit of the accounts of the trade union may be conducted by how many members of the Union?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

ANS. B

78.) Certified Standing Orders cannot be modified, except on agreement between the employer and the workmen, until the expiry of how much time from the date on which standing orders came into operation?

(A) 2 months

(B) 3 months 

(C) 6 months

(D) 12 months

ANS. C

79.) Scooters India is an establishment covered by the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946. R is a workman of the establishment. He is suspended by the employer, pending investigation into complaints of misconduct against him. The employer has to pay him subsistence allowance for first ninety days of suspension at the rate of:

(A) 20% of the wages

(B) 25% of the wages

(C) 50% of the wages

(D) 75% of the wages

ANS. C

80.) Questions pertaining to application or interpretation of a standing order certified under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 may be referred to:

(A) Certifying Officer

(B) Labour Court

(C) Industrial Tribunal

(D) Appropriate Government

ANS. B

81.) Alice tells Bob, “I will not come to meet you tomorrow if it rains.” Bob replies, “If it rains tomorrow, I will come to meet you at your place.”

On the basis of the discussion of Alice and Bob, which of the following statements is/are true?

1. If it rains tomorrow, Alice and Bob will meet.
2. If it does not rain tomorrow, Alice and Bob will meet.

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS. A

82.) Which of the following statements is/are necessary and sufficient for a positive real number x to satisfy the inequality:

x +  ≤ 3?

1. + ≤ 7.
2. x ≤ .

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only 

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS. A

83.) Mr. Deen Dayal donates Rs. x to the i th person he meets after he has donated Rs. y to the (i–1)th person where x is the largest integer smaller than or equal to . He stops after donating Rs. 1 to the last person. If he had Rs. 100 left after donating Rs. 100 to a person, how much money (in Rs.) will he have at last?

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3

ANS. D

84.) A plant grows 20% of its height every year. After how many years will it grow at least twice of its present height for the first time?

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

ANS. B

85.) A packet of chewing gum costs Rs. 5 and along with each packet you receive two coupons. Using nine such coupons, you can buy a packet of chewing gum of the same type along with two coupons in it. If you have Rs. 1,000, and you buy maximum number of chewing gum packets, how many coupons will you have unspent?

(A) 0

(B) 4

(C) 6

(D) 8

ANS. D

86.) Expenses of a company on five different heads, namely, raw material, advertisement, transportation, infrastructure and salary to the employees are denoted by u, v, x, y and z when written in the same order. The angles corresponding to u, v, x and y represented on a pie diagram are 30°, 45°, 60° and 90° respectively.

If the company spent Rs. 55.4 crore on raw material, how much did it spend on infrastructure?

(A) Rs. 114.5 crore

(B) Rs. 115.6 crore

(C) Rs. 166.2 crore

(D) Rs. 118.0 crore

ANS. C

87.) Expenses of a company on five different heads, namely, raw material, advertisement, transportation, infrastructure and salary to the employees are denoted by u, v, x, y and z when written in the same order. The angles corresponding to u, v, x and y represented on a pie diagram are 30°, 45°, 60° and 90° respectively.

If the company spent Rs. 465 crores on paying salaries, what was its total expenditure (in Rs. crore) on these five heads?

(A) 1080

(B) 1120

(C) 1190

(D) 1240

ANS. D

88.) Expenses of a company on five different heads, namely, raw material, advertisement, transportation, infrastructure and salary to the employees are denoted by u, v, x, y and z when written in the same order. The angles corresponding to u, v, x and y represented on a pie diagram are 30°, 45°, 60° and 90° respectively.

What percentage of its expenses was on advertisement?

(A) 16.5%

(B) 15.0% 

(C) 12.5%

(D) 10.0%

ANS. C

89.) What should come in place of the question mark in the following?

SCD, TEG, UGJ, ? , WKP

(A) VIK

(B) VIM

(C) VIN

(D) VJE

ANS. B

90.) The number of pair of values of (x, y) for x ≤ y, where x, y are natural numbers, such that xy = 14 (x + y) are:

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

ANS. C

91.) The Summer Olympics of 2028 will be held at:

(A) Brisbane

(B) Doha

(C) Los Angeles

(D) Paris

ANS. C

92. Which football team became the champion of the English Premier League in the year 2023?

(A) Arsenal

(B) Liverpool

(C) Manchester United

(D) Manchester City

ANS. D

93.) Which one of the following countries conferred its highest civilian honour of the country on the Prime Minister of India in May 2023?

(A) Australia

(B) Fiji

(C) New Zealand

(D) Japan

ANS. B

94.) Which Indian sportsperson won gold for India in the Archery World Cup held in Shanghai in the year 2023?

(A) Abhishek Verma

(B) Atanu Das

(C) Prathamesh Jawkar

(D) Neeraj Chauhan

ANS. C

95.) What was the name of the search and rescue operation carried out by NDRF in the aftermath of the earthquake in Turkey in February 2023?

(A) Operation Sahayata

(B) Operation Sahyog

(C) Operation Dost

(D) Operation Himmat

ANS. C

96.) In April 2023, the Election Commission of India withdrew national party status of which of the following political parties?

1. NCP
2. TMC
3. CPI
4. BSP

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1, 2 and 4

(D) 1 and 3 only 

ANS. A

97.) Who among the following is the Chairperson of the Law Commission of India?

(A) Justice (Retd) Rituraj Awasthi

(B) Justice (Retd.) R.M. Chhaya

(C) Justice (Retd.) Jaswant Singh

(D) Justice (Retd.) Prakash Shrivastava

ANS. A

98.) Who heads the Committee constituted to review the National Pension System?

(A) T.V. Somanathan

(B) Bibek Debroy

(C) Amitabh Kant

(D) T.K Vishwanathan

ANS. A

99.) To improve India’s performance at the Olympic Games, the Government of India started TOPS. What does it stand for?

(A) Train Olympic Player Scheme

(B) Target Olympic Participants Scheme

(C) Target Olympic Podium Scheme

(D) Train Olympic Podium Scheme

ANS. C

100.) Who among the following was not one of the gold medalists for India at the IBA Women’s World Boxing Championships, 2023?

(A) Nitu Ghanghas

(B) Saweety Boora

(C) Jamuna Boro

(D) Lovlina Borgohain

ANS. C

101.) Excess allocable surplus that remains after paying the maximum bonus of 20% of the total salary or wages in an accounting year shall be carried forward to the succeeding accounting year for payment of bonus in case of shortage of the allocable surplus or losses occurring in the succeeding accounting year as per Section 15(1) of the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965. This is known as:

(A) Carry on

(B) Set on

(C) Carry off

(D) Set off

ANS. B

102.) Where in any accounting year, an employer has paid customary bonus to an employee:

(A) he shall be entitled to deduct the amount of bonus so paid from the amount of statutory bonus payable to the employee under the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965.

(B) he cannot deduct the amount of bonus so paid from the amount of statutory bonus payable to the employee under the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965.

(C) the management is absolved of its liability to pay customary bonus in the next accounting year.

(D) the management is absolved of its liability to pay bonus under the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 in the next accounting year.

ANS. A

103.) Under the Factories Act, 1948, a person is an ‘adolescent’ on attaining the age of:

(A) 14 years but has not completed 18 years of age.

(B) 15 years but has not completed 18 years of age.

(C) 15 years.

(D) 14 years but has not completed 21 years of age.

ANS. B

104.) Under the Factories Act, 1948, ‘factory’ means any premises whereon:

1. ten or more workers are/were working on any day of the preceding 12 months, in any premise where manufacturing process is being carried on with the aid of power.
2. twenty more workers are/were working on any day of the preceding 12 months, in any premise where manufacturing process is being carried on without the aid of power.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS. C

105.) Which among the following is/are general duty/duties of an ‘occupier’ under Section 7A (2) of the Factories Act, 1948?

1. Maintenance of all places of work in the factory in a condition that is safe to the health of the workers.
2. Ensuring safety in connection with use, handling, storage and transport of articles and substances.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS. C

106.) Which one among the following aspects is not covered in “Health” under the Factories Act, 1948?

(A) Maintaining clean and hygienic condition of spittoons.

(B) Sweepers to be employed to clean latrines, urinals and washing places.

(C) Maintaining temperature as will secure to worker’s reasonable conditions of comfort.

(D) Providing facilities for overnight accommodation in factories employing more than 500 workers.

ANS. D

107.) Which of the following provisions regarding ‘fencing of machinery’ is/are provided by the Factories Act, 1948?

1. Every moving part, whether prime mover or fly wheel connected to the prime mover, shall be securely fenced.
2. Headrace and tailrace of every water wheel and water turbine shall be securely fenced.
3. Lubricated belts of machinery shall be compulsorily fenced.
4. Any part of a stock-bar which projects beyond the head stock of a lathe shall be compulsorily fenced.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 2 only

(B) 1 and 4 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 4

ANS. D

108.) Which of the following provisions, relating to the measures to be taken to prevent explosion in a factory engaged in a manufacturing process which produces dust, gas, fumes, etc. and is likely to explode on ignition, is/are provided in the Factories Act, 1948?

1. Effective enclosure of plant and machinery used in the process
2. Ensure accumulation of the dust at one corner
3. Exclusion or effective enclosure of all possible sources of ignition
4. Ensure that the gas is not foul smelling

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 2, 3 and 4

ANS. C

109.) Which one of the following statements relating to the Factories Act, 1948 is not correct?

(A) Creche should be provided in a factory employing ordinarily more than thirty women.

(B) Creche can be used by all children.

(C) Every factory employing ordinarily five hundred or more workers should employ prescribed number of welfare officers.

(D) Adult means a person who has completed 18 years of age.

ANS. B

110.) Mr. X, who is an ‘occupier’ of a factory employing 20 workers, asked the employees to work from 9:00 am to 6:30 pm with a half-an-hour break in between. The workers are given Sunday as weekly holiday. Is this scheme permissible under the Factories Act, 1948?

(A) Yes

(B) Yes, if workers are given extra incentive

(C) Yes, subject to approval of the Chief Inspector in a specified situation and also to the limit prescribed under Section 51 of the Act

(D) Yes, but only for male workers

ANS. C

111.) Under Section 57 of the Factories Act, 1948, where a worker in a factory works on a shift which extends beyond midnight, the following day for the worker shall be deemed to be a period of 24 hours beginning:

(A) when the shift ends.

(B) when the shift begins

(C) at 6:00 am the following morning.

(D) from the official time of the following day.

ANS. A

112.) As per the Factories Act, 1948, all inside walls, ceilings, staircases, etc. of the factory shall be re-painted or re-varnished otherwise than with washable water paints:

(A) at least once in every 2 years.

(B) at least once in every 3 years.

(C) at least once in every 5 years.

(D) as and when the colour of the premises gets faded.

ANS. C

113.) How many workers are required to be ordinarily employed in the factory for the provision of canteen facility under the Factories Act, 1948?

(A) More than 100 workers

(B) More than 200 workers

(C) More than 250 workers

(D) More than 300 workers

ANS. C

114.) Which one among the following was the first Federation of Trade Unions in India?

(A) Textile Labour Association

(B) Indian National Trade Union Congress

(C) All India Trade Union Congress

(D) Hind Mazdoor Sabha

ANS. C

115.) Who introduced a private member Bill in 1928 in legislative Assembly to amend Trade Unions Act, 1926 for extending the immunities to all trade unions, whether registered or not?

(A) B.P. Wadia

(B) N.M. Joshi

(C) Motilal Nehru

(D) M.N. Roy

ANS. B

116.) Which among the following was not a recommendation made by the Royal Commission on Labour?

(A) Employer should recognize trade unions.

(B) Government should take the lead, in the case of their industrial employees, in making recognition of unions easy and in encouraging them to secure registration.

(C) Union leaders should endeavour to give as many members as possible some share in the work of the union and to find suitable men within the union to act as officers and train them for such a position.

(D) Trade union should be precluded from initiating and conducting credit or supply societies.

ANS. D

117.) The first National Labour Commission was chaired by:

(A) Justice J.C. Shah

(B) Justice Vivian Bose

(C) Justice Ravindra Varma

(D) Justice P.B. Gajendragadkar

ANS. D

118.) Who among the following was the first President of All India Trade Union Congress?

(A) Diwan Chaman Lal

(B) Lala Lajpat Rai

(C) M.N. Roy

(D) Jawaharlal Nehru

ANS. B

119.) An inter-state migrant workman is entitled to which of the following under the Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1979?

1. Journey allowance to and from his residence and place of work
2. Displacement allowance
3. Wages during the period of such journeys as if he were on duty
4. Money for food during such journey

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

ANS. D

120.) Who is responsible for providing the facilities specified in Section 16 of the Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1979, to an inter-state migrant workman, if the same has not been provided by the contractor?

(A) Occupier

(B) Appropriate Government

(C) Agent who had recruited the workman

(D) Principal employer

ANS. D