PART — A

Directions: In the following five items, each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given at the beginning as S1 and S6. The four sentences in between S1 and S6 in each question have been jumbled up and labelled as P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

1.) S1: Geological mapping, when properly done, demands skill and judgment.

S6: Nothing is more naive than to believe that a field geologist should gather only ‘facts’, the interpretation of which is to be made at a later date.

P: While the field work progresses he should conceive as many interpretations as are consistent with the known facts.

Q: As the field work progresses and the larger geological picture begins to unfold, experience and judgment are essential if the geologist is to evaluate properly the vast number of facts gathered from thousands of outcrops.

R: Such mapping requires keen observation and a knowledge of what data are significant.

S: Above all, the field geologist must use the method of “working multiple hypotheses” to deduce the geological structure.

(A) SRQP

(B) RQSP

(C) PSQR

(D) SRPQ

ANS. B

Source of this question

2.) S1: Under the colonial regime, basic infrastructure such as railways, ports, water transport, posts and telegraphs did develop.

S6: Naturally, therefore, these areas remained inaccessible to the people.

P: There always remained an acute shortage of all-weather roads to reach out to the rural areas during the rainy season.

Q: Roads constructed in India prior to the advent of British rule were not fit for modern transport.

R: However, the real motive behind this development was not necessarily to provide basic amenities to the people but to subserve various colonial interests.

S: The roads that were built primarily served the purposes of mobilizing the army within India and drawing out raw materials from the countryside to the nearest railway station.

(A) SPQR

(B) PQSR

(C) QPRS

(D) RQSP

ANS. D

Source of this question

3.) S1: Contemporary history is necessary, but it is at best a tentative record.

S6: Some portentous events can be seen to be so from the moment of their occurrence, like the discovery of the New World; others of comparable momentousness are hidden in obscurity.

P: The relevance of the issue of proportion is significant.

Q: It possesses, indeed, a massive supply of public record, but it necessarily lacks the inner knowledge of politicians’ minds, of planners’ proposals, of scientists’ discoveries, of technicians’ break-throughs.

R: It also lacks perspective since it is bereft of a sense of proportion.

S: It is impossible, over just a few years of observation, to estimate accurately the significance of various events.

(A) QPSR

(B) SRPQ 

(C) QSRP

(D) PRSQ

ANS. A

Source of this question

4.) S1: Income inequality in less-developed countries is worse than most estimates.

S6: The text regime in these countries needs to be progressive and futuristic.

P: There is a staggering level of difference between the income metrics and the actual income of the prosperous in such countries.

Q: The effective tax rates are not really progressive with regard to income.

R: They need to be re-engineered to bring into the tax net the enormous sums of ‘missing’ income.

S: They are even less so with regard to wealth.

(A) PQSR

(B) QSPR

(C) QSRP

(D) SRPQ

ANS. B

Source of this question

5.) S1: The history of English literature is usually divided into different periods.

S6: This is the real danger of periodization, which tends to give the impression of distinct categories where there are none.

P: However there are important discontinuities to be kept in mind.

Q: Each period has unique features that produce certain family resemblances between the writers of a particular period.

R: Scholars often specialize in periods such as Medieval, Renaissance, Romantic, Victorian, and Modern literature.

S: Failure to detect these discontinuities often produce a false sense of uniformity and consensus within a period.

(A) PQRS 

(B) RQPS

(C) PSQR

(D) RSPQ

ANS. B

Directions: In the following five items, each item has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (A), (B), and (C). Read each sentence and identify any error in any underlined part, and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e. (A) (B) or (C). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (D).

6.) Ramesh liked(A)  his friend’s music player(B)  to his own.(C)  No error(D) 

ANS. C

7.) Given the complex of the problem(A)  the committee is not expected(B)  to arrive at a decision any time soon.(C)  No error(D)

ANS. A

8.) The group of students(A)  on a visit to Srinagar(B)  circumnavigated around the Dal Lake.(C)  No error(D)

ANS. D

9.) Jitender was the smartest(A)  of the two(B)  children in the room.(C)  No error(D)

ANS. A

10.) He asked me if I would be(A)  interested in signing up(B)  as a member of the group.(C)  No error(D)

ANS. D

Directions : In the following five items, each sentence has a blank space and four options have been given after the sentence. Select the most appropriate option for the blank space and indicate your response on Answer Sheet accordingly.

11.) I  _____ walking past this particular shop for the last three years.

(A) was

(B) have

(C) have been

(D) had been

ANS. C

12.) All effects can be connected with immediate causes, but it _____ whether they provide the whole explanation.

(A) is doubted

(B) is a doubt

(C) may be a doubt

(D) may be doubted

ANS. D

Source of this question

13.) A bird _____ is better than two in the bush.

(A) in hand

(B) to hand

(C) handy

(D) in one’s hands

ANS. A

14.) Human history is ample proof that human ambition _____ no limits.

(A) knows

(B) keeps

(C) crosses

(D) marks

ANS. A

Source of this question

15.) Good history presents several perspectives on a period but these divergent views must _____ into an integrated whole.

(A) be made

(B) be fused

(C) fit

(D) be balanced

ANS. C

Source of this question

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the five questions that follow by selecting your answers based solely on the content of the passage and opinion of the author only.

16.) The world’s life-supporting resources are being depleted at a faster rate than ever before! We have to change our practices and those of the world  as a whole towards a more sustainable future. To give us an idea about the dimensions of change, the General Assembly of the United Nations has announced its ‘Agenda 2030’. The 17 Sustainable Development Goals describe the framework of our common global efforts. Within each goal, education holds a key position.

Of course education and teaming do not function in isolation. In a traditional sense they help to understand the world one lives in and prepare all for a job market with both intrinsic and instrumental values. What are the many roles of education in sustainable development? Its purpose is transformative in nature, in the sense that it should widen one’s worldview, make one question ‘unsustainability’, and help one build competencies to address global challenges and be accommodated into a global system. Beyond this, education for sustainable development means integrating the future’ as a specific dimension of our learning activities and teaching. How to build a sustainable future must play a central role in educational processes. Globalization, which is sometimes merely seen as global capitalism, has an inevitability about it. Whether we like it or not, we live in a highly interconnected and interdependent world. It is now well recognized that 21st century challenges are highly in nature and require cooperation beyond national boundaries. In a sustainable development sense we have to see ourselves as ‘citizens’ of the world and respond accordingly to the global challenges in the present century. In fact, global challenges have expanded the very notion of citizenship itself. There is an increasing recognition of the importance of global citizenship.

Which one of the following areas holds a common key position in United Nations ‘Agenda 2030’?

(A) Environment

(B) Gender

(C) Globalization

(D) Education

ANS. D

17.) The world’s life-supporting resources are being depleted at a faster rate than ever before! We have to change our practices and those of the world  as a whole towards a more sustainable future. To give us an idea about the dimensions of change, the General Assembly of the United Nations has announced its ‘Agenda 2030’. The 17 Sustainable Development Goals describe the framework of our common global efforts. Within each goal, education holds a key position.

Of course education and teaming do not function in isolation. In a traditional sense they help to understand the world one lives in and prepare all for a job market with both intrinsic and instrumental values. What are the many roles of education in sustainable development? Its purpose is transformative in nature, in the sense that it should widen one’s worldview, make one question ‘unsustainability’, and help one build competencies to address global challenges and be accommodated into a global system. Beyond this, education for sustainable development means integrating the future’ as a specific dimension of our learning activities and teaching. How to build a sustainable future must play a central role in educational processes. Globalization, which is sometimes merely seen as global capitalism, has an inevitability about it. Whether we like it or not, we live in a highly interconnected and interdependent world. It is now well recognized that 21st century challenges are highly in nature and require cooperation beyond national boundaries. In a sustainable development sense we have to see ourselves as ‘citizens’ of the world and respond accordingly to the global challenges in the present century. In fact, global challenges have expanded the very notion of citizenship itself. There is an increasing recognition of the importance of global citizenship.

What is the role of Education in sustainable development?

(A) Education will develop multiple competencies for sustainable development among people all over the world.

(B) Education will provide books to read on sustainable development.

(C) Education will increase the global capital.

(D) Education will reduce interdependence of the people.

ANS. A

18.) The world’s life-supporting resources are being depleted at a faster rate than ever before! We have to change our practices and those of the world  as a whole towards a more sustainable future. To give us an idea about the dimensions of change, the General Assembly of the United Nations has announced its ‘Agenda 2030’. The 17 Sustainable Development Goals describe the framework of our common global efforts. Within each goal, education holds a key position.

Of course education and teaming do not function in isolation. In a traditional sense they help to understand the world one lives in and prepare all for a job market with both intrinsic and instrumental values. What are the many roles of education in sustainable development? Its purpose is transformative in nature, in the sense that it should widen one’s worldview, make one question ‘unsustainability’, and help one build competencies to address global challenges and be accommodated into a global system. Beyond this, education for sustainable development means integrating the future’ as a specific dimension of our learning activities and teaching. How to build a sustainable future must play a central role in educational processes. Globalization, which is sometimes merely seen as global capitalism, has an inevitability about it. Whether we like it or not, we live in a highly interconnected and interdependent world. It is now well recognized that 21st century challenges are highly in nature and require cooperation beyond national boundaries. In a sustainable development sense we have to see ourselves as ‘citizens’ of the world and respond accordingly to the global challenges in the present century. In fact, global challenges have expanded the very notion of citizenship itself. There is an increasing recognition of the importance of global citizenship.

“We live in a highly interconnected and interdependent world’. What does this phrase mean in the passage?

(A) We are now more connected and dependent upon each other for our survival.

(B) The means of transport have become faster.

(C) We have become dependent on other countries.

(D) We are facing challenges from globalization.

ANS. A

19.) The world’s life-supporting resources are being depleted at a faster rate than ever before! We have to change our practices and those of the world  as a whole towards a more sustainable future. To give us an idea about the dimensions of change, the General Assembly of the United Nations has announced its ‘Agenda 2030’. The 17 Sustainable Development Goals describe the framework of our common global efforts. Within each goal, education holds a key position.

Of course education and teaming do not function in isolation. In a traditional sense they help to understand the world one lives in and prepare all for a job market with both intrinsic and instrumental values. What are the many roles of education in sustainable development? Its purpose is transformative in nature, in the sense that it should widen one’s worldview, make one question ‘unsustainability’, and help one build competencies to address global challenges and be accommodated into a global system. Beyond this, education for sustainable development means integrating the future’ as a specific dimension of our learning activities and teaching. How to build a sustainable future must play a central role in educational processes. Globalization, which is sometimes merely seen as global capitalism, has an inevitability about it. Whether we like it or not, we live in a highly interconnected and interdependent world. It is now well recognized that 21st century challenges are highly in nature and require cooperation beyond national boundaries. In a sustainable development sense we have to see ourselves as ‘citizens’ of the world and respond accordingly to the global challenges in the present century. In fact, global challenges have expanded the very notion of citizenship itself. There is an increasing recognition of the importance of global citizenship.

 The world’s life-supporting resources are being depleted at a faster rate than ever before!’ What does this phrase mean in the passage?

(A) Today we are facing an acute shortage of food products.

(B) Medical health systems are deteriorating at a fast pace.

(C) The natural resources necessary to sustain life are reducing drastically.

(D) Human life is becoming more dependent on the support of technology.

ANS. C

20.) The world’s life-supporting resources are being depleted at a faster rate than ever before! We have to change our practices and those of the world  as a whole towards a more sustainable future. To give us an idea about the dimensions of change, the General Assembly of the United Nations has announced its ‘Agenda 2030’. The 17 Sustainable Development Goals describe the framework of our common global efforts. Within each goal, education holds a key position.

Of course education and teaming do not function in isolation. In a traditional sense they help to understand the world one lives in and prepare all for a job market with both intrinsic and instrumental values. What are the many roles of education in sustainable development? Its purpose is transformative in nature, in the sense that it should widen one’s worldview, make one question ‘unsustainability’, and help one build competencies to address global challenges and be accommodated into a global system. Beyond this, education for sustainable development means integrating the future’ as a specific dimension of our learning activities and teaching. How to build a sustainable future must play a central role in educational processes. Globalization, which is sometimes merely seen as global capitalism, has an inevitability about it. Whether we like it or not, we live in a highly interconnected and interdependent world. It is now well recognized that 21st century challenges are highly in nature and require cooperation beyond national boundaries. In a sustainable development sense we have to see ourselves as ‘citizens’ of the world and respond accordingly to the global challenges in the present century. In fact, global challenges have expanded the very notion of citizenship itself. There is an increasing recognition of the importance of global citizenship.

‘There is an increasing recognition of the importance of global citizenship’ because:

(A) People want to travel more and live in different parts of the world.

(B) It will unite people from all over the world to face the challenges of the 21^st century.

(C) People believe that there is a future in foreign countries.

(D) People will cooperate with each other to save themselves from natural disasters.

ANS. B

PART- B

21.) Which one of the following was not provided in the Regulating Act of 1773?

(A) It made the Presidency of Bengal supreme over those of Bombay and Madras in matters relating to war and peace.

(B) The tenure of the Governor-General and his Councillors was fixed as five years.

(C) The supreme Court of Justice was established at Calcutta.

(D) The Governor-General-in-Council was authorized to appoint successors to Bombay and Madras Presidencies.

ANS. D

22.) Which one of the following statements about the Government of India Act of 1935 is not correct?

(A) It was an outcome of the Round Table Conferences.

(B) It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation.

(C) It retained the authority of the Secretary of State over the Government of India.

(D) It introduced the provision of Provincial Autonomy.

ANS. C

23.) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I (Congress Session)

1. Lahore Session, 1909
2. Calcutta Session, 1911
3. Bankipore Session, 1912
4. Madras Session, 1914

List II (President)

1. Madan Mohan Malaviya
2. Raghunath Narasinha Mudholkar

iii. Bishan Narayan Dar

1. Bhupendra Nath Bose

Codes:

(A) a- i, b- iii, c- ii, d- iv

(B) a- i, b- ii, c- iii, d- iv

(C) a- iv, b- ii, c- iii, d- i

(D) a- iv, b- iii, c- ii, d- i

ANS. A

24.) Who among the following started the Bhonsala Military School at Nashik?

(A) V. D. Savarkar

(B) M.R. Jayakar

(C) N.C. Kelkar

(D) B. S. Moonje

ANS. D

25.) Arrange the following events associated with Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya in chronological order, starting with the earliest:

1. Founding of the Banaras Hindu University
2. Formation of the Congress Nationalist Party
3. Founding of the English newspaper ‘The Leader’
4. Founding of the Hindu Hoarding House at Allahabad.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 3-4-1-2

(B) 4-3-1-2

(C) 4-3-2-1

(D) 3-4-2-1

ANS. B

26.)  An employee shall be covered under the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936. should the employee be drawing a maximum monthly wage of:

(A) Rupees fifteen thousand.

(B) Rupees eighteen thousand.

(C) Rupees twenty-one thousand.

(D) Rupees twenty-four thousand

ANS. D

27.) A minimum rate of remuneration which shall be applied to an employee working on piece work for the purpose of securing to such employees a minimum rate of wages on a time work basis under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 is known as:

(A) A minimum piece rate

(B) A guaranteed time rate

(C) A minimum time rate

(D) A guaranteed piece rate

ANS. B

28.) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Provision)

1. Recovery Officer
2. Compulsory Insurance
3. Scheduled Employment
4. Subsistence Allowance

List II (Legislation)

1. The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
2. The Minimum Wages Act, 1948
3. The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
4. The Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952

Codes:

(A) a- iv, b- iii, c- ii, d- i

(B) a- iv, b- ii, c- iii, i

(C) a- i, b- ii, c- iii, d- iv

(D) a- i, b- iii, c- ii, d- iv

ANS. A

29.) An adult worker who has joined on 1st January, 2022 in a factory and worked for 220 days during the year has been laid off for 25 days as per Standing Orders during the year. How many days of leave with wages shall he be entitled to during the calendar year 2023?

(A) Nil

(B) 10

(C) 12

(D) 11

ANS. D

30.) As per the provisions of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act ,1946, standing orders shall come into operation after the expiry of how many days from the date on which copies of the order of the Appellate Authority are sent to the employer and to the trade unions?

(A) Seven days

(B) Ten days

(C) Fifteen days

(D) Thirty days

ANS. A

31.) How many members are to be nominated by the Central government to the National Social Security Board as per the provisions of the Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008?

(A) Eighteen

(B) Twenty

(C) Twenty-six

(D) Thirty-four

ANS. D

32.) Which one of the following schemes is not a Social Security Scheme under the Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008?

(A) National Family Benefit Scheme

(B) Janshree Bima Yojana

(C) Employees’ Pension Scheme

(D) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana

ANS. C

33.) Which one of the following authorities constituted by the Central Government shall be the Appellate Authority under the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?

(A) Employees Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal

(B) National Tribunal 

(C) Labour Appellate Tribunal

(D) Industrial Tribunal

ANS. D

34.) As per the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, the maximum period for which a female employee shall be entitled to leave with wages as maternity benefit for giving birth to the third child is:

(A) Eight weeks

(B) Twelve weeks

(C) Sixteen weeks

(D) Twenty-six weeks

ANS. B

35.) Which one of the following statements under the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 is not correct?

(A) It makes provision for pension scheme including family pension.

(B) It makes provision for Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme.

(C) The provisions of the Act shall not be applicable to Cooperative Societies employing fifty or more persons working without the aid of power.

(d)The contribution by the employer to the Fund shall be on the basis of the basic wage, dearness allowance and retaining allowance (if any) of the employee.

ANS. C

36.) In a desert, X and Y are two spots that are separated by 100 km. At point X, are placed two pillars, one black and one white. Along the line joining X and Y, a white pillar is placed for every 180m and a black pillar is placed for every 350m. How many times can one find black and white pillars together while traveling from X to Y?

(A) 14

(B) 15

(C) 16

(D)  17

ANS. C

37.) P, Q, R, S, T and U are six friends. Which of the following is/are sufficient to compare heights of S and T?

1. R is shorter than P but taller than other friends.
2. U is taller than Q but shorter than S although Q is not the shortest among the friends.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 alone is sufficient

(B) 2 alone is sufficient

(C) Both 1 and 2 are not sufficient

(D) 1 and 2 together are sufficient

ANS. C

38.) Eight chairs are placed at a uniform distance from each other around a round table. C and D are equal distance away from both A and B; E sits between A and C; G and F sit opposite each other. Where does H sit?

(A) Adjacent to D

(B) Adjacent to A

(C) Adjacent to F

(D) Adjacent to G

ANS. A

39.) A, B and C can individually finish a job in 10, 15 and 6 days, respectively. If all of them work together, in how many days will they finish the job?

(A) 2 days

(B) 3 days

(C) 4 days

(D) 5 days

ANS. B

40.) A dice is thrown two times. The number of ways that the number appearing on the first throw is not less than that on the second throw is:

(A) 15

(B) 20

(C) 21

(D) 36

ANS. C

41.) Overhauling expenses of Rs. 25,000 for the engine of a motor car to get better fuel efficiency is:

(A) Deferred revenue expenditure

(B) Revenue receipt

(C) Capital expenditure

(D) Revenue expenditure

ANS. C

42.) Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) Depreciation is a non-cash expense.

(B) Depreciation is the process of valuation of assets.

(C) The main cause of depreciation is wear and tear caused by usage.

(D) Depreciation must be charged so as to ascertain true profit or loss of a business.

ANS. B

43.) A credit purchase of machinery recorded in Purchase Book instead of Journal Proper is an example of:

(A) Compensating errors

(B) Errors of commission

(C) Errors of principle

(D) Errors of omission

ANS. C

44.) The practice of appending notes regarding contingent liability in accounting statements is pursuant to:

(A) Convention of consistency 

(B) Money measurement concept

(C) Convention of conservatism

(D) Convention of full disclosure

ANS. D

45.) ‘Outstanding rent’ may be classified as:

(A) Natural personal account

(B) Representative personal account

(C) Real account

(D) Nominal account

ANS. B

46.) Which of the following tag is used to insert comments in the HTML source code?

(A) </–          –>

(B) <!–          –>

(C) <–           !–>

(D) </–          –/>

ANS. B

47.) Which one among the following is used to create an e-mail hyperlink to a webpage?

(A) mail:

(B) mailto:

(C) tomail:

(D) to_mail:

ANS. B

48.) In the context of a buffer in memory area or disk, spool refers to:

(A) Simple peripheral operation on-line

(B) Simple peripheral operation off-line

(C) Simultaneous peripheral operation on-line

(D) Simultaneous peripheral operation off-line

ANS. C

49.) Which one of the following is not a commutative law? 

(A) A*b = b*A

(B) A+b = b+A

(C) A-b = b-A

(D) A*B = B*A

ANS. C

50.) Which OSI layer is responsible for managing the communication between computers in the network?

(A) Network layer

(B) Transport layer

(C) Session layer

(D) Data link layer

ANS. A

51.) Consider the following statements about DNA?

1. DNA refers to Deoxyribonucleic Acid.
2. It is located in the ribosomes
3. It is composed of Ribonucleic Acid.
4. It can make a copy of itself.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 4

(B) 1 and 3

(C) 4 only

(D) 2 and 3

ANS. A

52.) Velamen, a spongy tissue, is formed in:

(A) Tap root

(B) Epiphytic root

(C) Fibrous root

(D) Respiratory root

ANS. B

53.) Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) Hydrogen ions cannot exist alone.

(B) All compounds containing hydrogen are acidic.

(C) Separation of  ions from HCl molecules cannot occur in the absence of water.

(D) Water soluble bases are known as alkalis.

ANS. B

54.) Which one of the following elements has the highest boiling point?

(A) Lithium

(B) Sodium

(C) Potassium

(D) Rubidium

ANS. A

55.) An ice cube with 10cm side is divided into eight smaller cubes, with same side. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?

(A) Total volume will increase and total surface area will decrease.

(B) Total volume will decrease and total surface area will increase.

(C) Total volume will remain the same and total surface will increase.

(D) Total volume will increase and total surface area will remain the same.

ANS. C

56.) Which of the following statements regarding the attendance of retired judges at sittings of the Supreme Court of India is/are correct?

1. Article 128 permits the attendance of retired judges at the sittings of the Supreme Court.
2. The Chief Justice of India may at any time request anyone who has held office as a Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
3. The Chief Justice of India may at any time, with the previous consent of the President of India, request any person who has held the office of Chief Justice of a High Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
4. The Chief Justice of India may at any time, with the previous consent of the President of India, request any person who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 4

(B) 1 and 3

(C) 2 and 4

(D) 4 only

ANS. A

57.) The board of cooperative society can be superseded or kept under suspension if:

1. There is negligence in the performance of duties.
2. There is any act prejudicial to the interest of the co-operative society or its members.
3. The body has failed to conduct elections in accordance with the provisions of the State Act.
4. There is no Government shareholdings or loan or financial assistance or any guarantee by the Government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 3 and 4 only 

(D) 1, 2 and 3

ANS. D

58.) Which of the following statements regarding the Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme are correct?

1. The nodal ministry for the scheme is the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
2. Funds released under the scheme are non-lapsable.
3. The role of the Member of Parliament is limited to recommending works.
4. The scheme is confined to the State from which the Member of Parliament is elected (Lok Sabha). However, a Member of Parliament from Rajya Sabha can recommend works anywhere in the country.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 4 only

(B) 1, 2 and 3 only

(C) 2, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANS. B

59.) The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index developed by the United Nations Development Programme is a measurement of:

1. Nutrition
2. Cooking fuel
3. Assets
4. School attendance

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 1, 2 and 3 only

(C) 2, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1 and 4 only

ANS. A

60.) Which one of the following was not recommended by the Dinesh Committee (1990)?

(A) The appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner should be made by the President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Leader of the Opposition.

(B) The members of the Election Commission should be appointed by the President of India on the advice of a Committee, consisting of the Prime Minister and the Leader of the Opposition.

(C) The consultation process should have a statutory backing.

(D) The appointment of the other Election Commissioners should be made in consultation with the Chief Election Commissioner, the Chief Justice of India and the Leader of the Opposition.

ANS. B

61.) Who among the following was a companion of the freedom fighter Rani Chennamma of Kittur and continued the fight against the British after the Rani’s capture by the British in 1824?

(A) Rayanna

(B) Tipu Garo

(C) Jagbandhu

(D) Dukaribala Devi

ANS. A

62.) The first Indian Factories Act, passed in 1881, dealt primarily with:

(A) Women labour

(B) Living conditions of factory workers

(C) Child Labour

(D) Textile workers

ANS. C

63.) Where was Azad Hind Fauz (INA) formed?

(A) Singapore

(B) Tokyo

(C) Berlin

(D) Rangoon

ANS. A

64.) In 1927, Lord Birkenhead, Secretary of State it India, appointed a Committee of three me numbers to enquire into the relationship between the Indian States and the British government and to make suggestions for more satisfactory adjustment of the existing economic relations between the Indian States and British India. Who among the following was not a member of the Committee?

(A) Harcourt Butler

(B) A.J. Wilson

(C) W.S. Holdsworth

(D) S.C. Peel

ANS. B

65.) Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Under the Cornwallis System, the districts were divided into thanas or police jurisdictions of 20-30 miles square.
2. Each of them was placed under an officer of government, under the denomination of daroga.
3. The daroga system was introduced in Madras in 1812.
4. The daroga was nominated by the district magistrate.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2 and 4

ANS. A

66.) Model Standing Orders formed under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 shall not apply to an establishment in respect of which the Appropriate Government is that of the State of:

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Gujarat

(C) Kerala

(D) West Bengal

ANS. A

67.) An ‘out-worker is expressly excluded from the definition of ‘workman’ under which one of the following legislations?

(A) The Factories Act, 1948

(B) The Plantations Labour Act, 1951 

(C) The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970

(D) The Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1979

ANS. C

68.) Which one of the following nature of work shall not be taken into account while the Appropriate Government considers prohibiting employment of contract labour in an establishment under the Contract (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970?

(A) The process, operation or other work is incidental to or necessary for the industry.

(B) The work is of a permanent nature.

(C) The work is done ordinarily through regular workmen

(D) The work is of intermittent nature

ANS. D

69.) Which one of the statements relating to the Grievance Redressal Committee under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is not correct?

(A) It shall consist of equal number of members from among employer and workmen.

(B) It shall be constituted in an industrial establishment employing twenty or more workmen.

(C) The Chairperson of the Committee shall be nominated by the Appropriate Government.

(D) The total members of the Committee shall not be more than six.

ANS. C

70.) Under the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, a Safety Committee is to be constituted in a factory where:

(A) 1000 or more workers are employed

(B) Hazardous substances are used or handled

(C) Heavy machinery is utilized

(D) 500 or more workers are employed

ANS. B

71.) The eight-digit number 789459xy is divisible by 88, where x and y are digits. What are possible values of x and y?

(A) x=1, y=2

(B) x=2, y=2

(C) x=3, y=6

(D) x=4, y=4

ANS. D

72.) If x is the smallest natural number that is divisible by both 24 and 30, whereas y is the largest natural number that divides both 36 and 100, then what is the value of x – y?

(A) 116

(B) 124

(C) 128 

(D) 132

ANS. A

73.) What is the digit in the unit place of ?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 6

(D) 8

ANS. C

74.) A runner completed a 40 km race in 3 hours. She changed her speed after completing each quarter of the distance such that the proportion of the speeds in the first, second, third and the fourth quarter, is given by 2:3:4:5 respectively. In how much time then (approximately) did she complete the last quarter of the race?

(A) 32 minutes

(B) 31 minutes

(C) 29 minutes

(D) 28 minutes

ANS. D

75.) If there are enough coins of domination Rs. 1, Rs. 2 and Rs. 5, then in how many ways can one pay Rs. 10?

(A) 8

(B) 9

(C) 10

(D) 11

ANS. C

76.) Which of the following is included in the ‘Cost of Inventory’ according to Accounting Standard-2 (Inventory Valuation):

(A) Administrative overheads that do not contribute to bringing the inventories to their present location and condition

(B) Storage costs which are necessary in the production process prior to a further production stage

(C) Selling and distribution costs

(D) Duties and taxes paid on purchases, subsequently recoverable by the enterprise from the Tax Authorities.

ANS. B

77.) Following is the trial balance of a firm as on 31.03.2022:

Additional discount allowed to debtors during the year is Rs. 20,000. The firm has a policy of maintaining a provision for discount to debtors equal to 10% of the Trade Receivables’ balances. Total amount to be charged to Profit and Loss Account (for the year ending 31.03.2022) for discount allowed and provision for discount created will be:

(A) Rs. 25,000

(B) Rs. 13,000

(C) Rs. 9,000

(D) Rs. 33,000

ANS. D

78.) Consider the following information:

Which one of the following is value of inventory on January 31 under perpetual inventory system using First-In-First-Out (FIFO) method?

(A) Rs. 6700

(B) Rs. 8,700

(C) Rs. 10,700

(D) Rs. 12,000

ANS. C

79.) Following is the information relating to a club for the year ending 31.03.2022:

Subscription outstanding as on 31.03.2021 – Rs. 16,000

Subscription outstanding as on 31.03.2022 – Rs. 18,000

Subscription received in advance as on 31.03.2021 – Rs. 12,000

Subscription received in advance as on 31.03.2022 – Rs. 11,000

There are 70 members each paying an annual subscription of Rs. 1,000. Total subscription received during the year 2021-22 will be:

(A) Rs. 67,000

(B) Rs. 71,000

(C) Rs. 69,000

(D) Rs. 77,000

ANS. A

80.) Reporting on fraud is to be made by an auditor to the Central Government when the sums involved in the fraud:

(A) exceed Rs. 20 lakh

(B) exceed Rs. 50 lakh

(C) exceed Rs. 75 lakh

(D) are Rs. 1 crore or above

ANS. D

81.) Which one of the following is not a security protocol?

(A) TLS

(B) SSL

(C) IPsec

(D)  MIME

ANS. D

82.) LaTeX document does not contain:

(A) \documentclass

(B) \begin

(C) \end

(D)  \documentstyle

ANS. D

83.) The decimal equivalent of is:   

(A) 0.8122

(B) 0.8123

(C) 0.8124

(D) 0.8125

ANS. D

84.) In a worksheet, which one of the following is not a cell referencing style?

(A) Relative referencing

(B) Real-time referencing

(C) Absolute referencing

(D) Mixed referencing

ANS. B

 85.) Which one among the following is used to combine several object modules and libraries to a single executable program?

(A) Interpreter

(B) Compiler

(C) Linker

(D) Loader

ANS. C

86.) An incandescent bulb rated as 100W at 110V is connected to a 220V power supply. The power that dissipates in the bulb would be:

(A) 50W

(B) 100W

(C) 200W

(D) 400W

ANS. D

87.) If the length of a current carrying wire is halved, for a given potential difference, the current in given would:

(A) be doubled

(B) be halved

(C) remain unchanged

(D) become zero

ANS. A

88.) Crystals of copper sulphate pentahydrate, on heating, form:

(A) blue colour salt

(B) white colour salt

(C) green colour salt

(D) brown colour salt

ANS. B

89.) Tartaric acid is found in:

(A) Tamarind

(B) Tomato

(C) Orange

(D) Vinegar

ANS. A

90.) Which one of the following is an example of chemical change?

(A) Melting of wax

(B) Heating of iron

(C) Dissolution of sugar in water

(D) Burning of magnesium in air

ANS. D

91.) Which one of the following is not a constitutional body in India?

(A) National Human Rights Commission

(B) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

(C) National Commission for Backward Classes

(D) National Commission for Scheduled Castes

ANS. A

92.) Which one of the following is/are elements of the India’s ‘Panchamrit’view on climate change?

1. India will reach its non-fossil energy capacity of 500 GW by 2030.
2. India will meet 50% of its energy requirements from renewable energy by 2030.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS. C

93.) What are the prerequisites for declaring any area as a ‘Scheduled Area’ under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

1. Preponderance of Tribal Population
2. Compactness and reasonable size of the area
3. Economic backwardness of the area
4. The notification must be issued by the Governor of the concerned State

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 2 and 4 only

(B) 1, 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANS. B

94.) The Railway Budget was separated from General Budget owing to:

(A) Distributive Convention of 1925

(B) Separation Convention of 1924

(C) Bifurcation of Estimates of 1924

(D) Equalising Convention of 1925

ANS. B

95.) Which of the following statements regarding the non-electric cooling cabinet, for which the Bureau of Indian Standards (EIS) has recently developed an Indian Standard (IS 17693:2022), is/are correct?

1. It is a natural refrigerator made primarily to store vegetables, fruits, milk, and also for cooling water.
2. This standard helps BIS in fulfilling 6 out of 17 United Nations Sustainable Development Goals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS. C

96.) Which of the following facilities are to be provided by the contractor to Inter-State migrant workers in connection with the work of an establishment to which the Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1979 is applicable?

1. Equal pay for equal work irrespective of sex
2. Provision for suitable residential accommodation
3. Provision for protective clothing
4. Provision for old age benefit scheme
5. Prescribed medical facilities

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 2, 3 and 5 only

(B) 2, 4 and 5 only

(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(D) 1, 3 and 4 only

ANS. C

97.) A dispute relating to the age of an adolescent employed by an employer which arises due to the absence of any authentic document can be referred to which one of the following authorities for a decision under the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986?

(A) The Prescribed Medical Authority

(B) The Labour Court

(C) The Inspector appointed under the Act

(D) The Appropriate Government

ANS. A

98.) Under the provisions of the Factories Act, 1948, which one of the following statements relating to the appointment of the Chairman of the Site Appraisal Committee is correct?

(A) Labour Commissioner of the State is the Chairman.

(B) An independent person is appointed as the Chairman.

(C) The Labour Minister of the State is the ex-officio Chairman.

(D) The Chief Inspector of the State is the Chairman.

ANS. D

99.) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Provision)

1. Displacement Allowance
2. Certifying Surgeon
3. Half-monthly payment
4. Piece work

List II (Act)

1. The Factories Act, 1948
2. The Minimum Wages Act, 1948

iii. The Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1979

1. The Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923

Code:

(A) a- ii, b- i, c- iv, d- iii

(B) a- iii, b- i, c- iv, d- ii

(C) a- ii, b- iv, c- i, d- iii

(D) a- iii, b- iv, c- i, d- ii

ANS. B

100.) Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, right of legal representation before a Labour Court, or Industrial Tribunal or National Industrial Tribunal is:

(A) A statutory right

(B) Not at all permissible

(C) Can be permitted by the forum if the other party does not object or gives consent

(D) May be permitted if such permission is granted by the High Court of the State/Union Territory

ANS. C

101.) A train of length 400 m takes 15 seconds to cross a train of length 300 m travelling at 60 km per hour from the opposite direction along a parallel track. What is the speed of the longer train in km per hour?

(A) 108

(B) 102

(C) 98

(D) 96

ANS. A

102.) There is a water tank in the form of a rectangular parallelepiped of height 1.1 m and a square base of side 2 m. If a full tank of water is drained out completely in a long pipe of circular cross section area of radius 1 cm what should be the minimum length of the pipe, in km, to hold the entire water in it?

(Take π = 22/7)

(A) 12

(B) 13

(C) 14

(D) 15

ANS. C

103.) A person buys 10 pens and 8 pencils for ₹200. Price of each pen is same and price of each pencil is same. If he could have bought Five pens and 24 pencils of same type using the same amount, then what is the price of each pen in rupees?

(A) ₹16

(B) ₹15

(C) ₹14

(D) ₹13

ANS. A

104.)  A school has 100 students and every student plays either cricket or football or both. The number of students who plays cricket is twice the number of students who plays football. Also, the number of students who plays only cricket is 3 times a number of students who play only football. The number of students who play both cricket and football is therefore:

(A) 30

(B) 28

(C) 25

(D) 20

ANS. D

105.) A man walks in certain direction for 5 km and then walks in the South direction for 4 km. If he ends up in the east direction with respect to the starting position, how far is he from the starting position?

(A) 2 Km

(B) 3 Km

(C) 4 Km

(D) 5 Km

ANS. B

106.) The beneficiaries under the Integrated Child Development Service (ICDS) scheme are children in the age group of:

(A) 0 – 6 Years

(B) 0 – 3 Years

(C) 3 – 6 Years

(D) 6 – 15 Years

ANS. A

107.) Which of the following statements about ‘Truck farming’ is/or correct?

1. Growing vegetables around urban centre to meet the daily demand of people is known as truck farming.
2. It is governed by the distance a truck can cover overnight between the farm and the market.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 & 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS. C

108.) Which of the following statements with reference to service sector is/are correct?

1. Retail trade falls under territory activity.
2. Research and Development based activity comes under quaternary activity.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 & 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS. C

109.) Which of the following statements about the National Skill Development Corporation is/are not correct?

1. It is a non-for-profit Public Limited Company set up by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
2. It promotes skill development by catalysing the creation of only large, quantity and non-profit vocational institutions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 & 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS. C

110.) Which of the following statements with reference to the Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana (AVYAY) is/are correct?

1. Fulfil basic needs of destitute elderly citizens.
2. Build and strengthen intergenerational relationships through Regional Resource and Training Centres
3. Provide guaranteed monthly pension to elderly citizens
4. Establish Atal Incubation centre for elderly citizens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) 1, 2, & 4

(B) 3 & 4 only

(C) 1 & 2 Only

(D) 1 only

ANS. C

111.)  Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, Central Government Determines the inflation target, in consultation with Reserve Bank of India, in terms of Consumer Price Index once in five years.

Statement II: At present, the Monetary Policy Framework in India is operated by Central Government.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(A) Both statement I & statement II are correct & Statement II is the correct explanation for statement I.

(B) Both statement I and statement II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I

(C) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect

(D) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct

ANS. C

112.) Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, the RTGS & NEFT payment systems are owned and operated by National Payment Corporation of India.

Statement II: National Payment Corporation of India is an entity promoted by banks.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(A) Both statement I and statement II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation for statement I

(B) Both statement I and statement II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I

(C) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect

(D) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct

ANS. D

113.)  Consider the following statements :

Statement I: A very strong US Dollar squeezes global credit.

Statement II: Many countries and companies outside America borrow in Dollars.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(A) Both statement I and statement II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation for statement I

(B) Both statement I and statement II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I

(C) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect

(D) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct

ANS. A

https://www.economist.com/finance-and-economics/2022/09/08/why-the-dollar-is-strong-and-why-that-is-a-problem

114.) Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Government of India mandates the packaging of 100% sugar and food grains in diversified jute bags.

Statement II: The Government of India enacted the Jute Packaging Materials (Compulsory Use in Packing Commodities) Act, 1987.

Which of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(A) Both statement I and statement II are correct, and statement II is the correct explanation for statement I

(B) Both statement I and statement II are correct and statement II is not the correct explanation for statement I

(C) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect

(D) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct

ANS. D

115.) Recently which one among the following committed up to $ 25 billion for the next five years to fund India’s infrastructure creation under the Prime minister Gati Shakti initiative as well as social development and climate action, thus aiding India’s aspirations for green growth?

(A) Asian Development Bank

(B) International Finance Corporation

(C) New Development Bank

(D) World Bank

ANS. A

116.) ‘Large language models’ sometimes described in news, can we used in which of the following?

1. Creation of reimagined search engines
2. Health care
3. software development
4. translating a language

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 1, 2 and 4 only

(C) 2, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANS. D

117.) With reference to the 3 types of carbon emissions from companies, consider the following pairs:

Emission                    

1. Scope 1 emissions
2. Scope 2 Emission
3. Scope 3 Emission

Example

1. Emissions as a result of employee commuting business travel and waste produced
2. Emissions as a result of purchase of electricity, steam, heating and cooling for own use
3. Emission from fuels consumed by company vehicles, owned and leased

Which of the above pairs is/are our correctly matched?

(A) 1 & 2

(B) 2 only

(C) 1 & 3

(D) 3 only

ANS. B

118.) ‘Quantified Domestic Minimum top-up tax’ is generally talked about in the context of :

(A) Global Anti-Base Erosion Rules

(B) Prevention of Money Laundering

(C) Regulation of Crypto-currency

(D) Virtual digital asset transactions

ANS. A

119.) Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘’ sometimes seen in news?

(A) A special purpose supercomputer with the hardware architecture dedicated to a single problem

(B) A database of the finance performance of companies that is specially designed for academia

(C) A computing machine that uses the properties of quantum physics to store data and perform computation

(D) A database in which collection and storing of data is done on user’s system and this is basically designed for a single user

ANS. B

120.) ‘NSE Prime’, sometimes mentioned in news, donates:

(A) Highest standard corporate governance initiative

(B) Long duration sovereign green bonds

(C) Concessions and text holidays for hi-tech start-up companies

(D) Special privileges for certain categories of non-Banking financial institutions

ANS. A