1.) Read the following passage and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to those items should be based on the passages only.

The main threat to maintaining progress in human development comes from the increasingly evident unsustainability of production and consumption patterns. Current production models rely heavily on fossil fuels. We now know that this is unsustainable because the resources are finite. The close link between economic growth and greenhouse gas emissions needs to be severed for human development to become truly sustainable. Some developed countries have begun to alleviate the worst effects by expanding recycling and investing in public transport and infrastructure. But most developing countries are hampered by the high costs and low availability of clean energy sources. Developed countries need to support developing countries’ transition to sustainable human development. 

Question: Unsustainability in production pattern is due to which of the following? 

1. Heavy dependence on fossil fuels 

2. Limited availability of resources 

3. Expansion of recycling 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(A) 1 and 2 only 

(B) 2 only 

(C) 1 and 3 only 

(D) 1, 2 and 3

ANS. A

EXP. The statements 1 and 2 is directly mentioned in the passage as a reason for unsustainability in production and consumption pattern. 

 

The statement 3 cannot be the reason because it is clearly mentioned in the passage that expansion of recycling is used as a measure to alleviate the worst effects of unsustainability.

 

Therefore, option A is correct.

 

2.) Read the following passage and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to those items should be based on the passages only.

The main threat to maintaining progress in human development comes from the increasingly evident unsustainability of production and consumption patterns. Current production models rely heavily on fossil fuels. We now know that this is unsustainable because the resources are finite. The close link between economic growth and greenhouse gas emissions needs to be severed for human development to become truly sustainable. Some developed countries have begun to alleviate the worst effects by expanding recycling and investing in public transport and infrastructure. But most developing countries are hampered by the high costs and low availability of clean energy sources. Developed countries need to support developing countries’ transition to sustainable human development. 

Question: Consider the following statements:

Developed countries can support developing countries transition to sustainable human development by

1. making clean energy sources available at low cost

2. providing loans for improving their public transport at nominal interest rates

3. encouraging them to change their production and consumption patterns

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

ANS. A

EXP. It is mentioned in the passage that the most developing countries are hampered by the high costs and low availability of clean energy sources. Therefore, statement 1 is clearly implied from the passage.

 

However, there is no clue in the passage for methods adopted by developed countries to support developing countries toward sustainable human development. The passage only emphasis on the need of such support. Therefore, statement 2 and 3 cannot be implied from the passage.

 

Therefore, option A is correct.

 

3.) Read the following passage and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to those items should be based on the passages only.

Unless the forces and tendencies which are responsible fore destroying the country’s environment are checked in the near future and afforestation of denuded areas is taken up on a massive scale, the harshness of the climatic conditions and soil erosion by wind and water will increase to such an extent that agriculture, which is the mainstay of our people, will gradually become impossible. The desert countries of the world and our own desert areas in Rajasthan are a grim reminder of the consequences of large-scale deforestation. Pockets of desert-like landscape are now appearing in other parts of the country including the Sutlej-Ganga Plains and the Deccan Plateau. Where only a few decades back there used to be lush green forests with perennial streams and springs, there is only brown earth, bare of vegetation, without any water in the streams and springs except in the rainy season.

Question: 

According to the passage given above, deforestation and denudation will ultimately lead to which of the following?

1. Depletion of soil resource

2. Shortage of land for the common man

3. Lack of water for cultivation

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

ANS. C

EXP. Soil erosion, increase in desertification and waterless streams and springs are clearly mentioned as harmful effects of deforestation and denudation. Therefore, statement 1 and 3 are correct.

 

However, the passage does not refer anywhere shortage of land for common man, therefore statement 2 is not correct.

 

Hence, option C is correct.

 

4.) What is the value of X in the sequence 20, 10, 10, 15, 30, 75, X?

(A) 105

(B) 120

(C) 150

(D) 225

ANS. D

EXP. The sequence is:

20 × 0.5 = 10

10 × 1 = 10

10 × 1.5 = 15

15 × 2 = 30

30 × 2.5 = 75

Hence, X = 75 × 3 = 225

 

5.) An Identity Card has the number ABCDEFG, not necessarily in that order, where each letter represents a distinct digit (1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9 only). The number is divisible by 9. After deleting the first digit from the right, the resulting number is divisible by 6. After deleting two digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 5. After deleting three digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 4. After deleting four digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 3. After deleting five digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 2. Which of the following is a possible value for the sum of the middle three digits of the number?

(A) 8

(B) 9

(C) 11

(D) 12

ANS. A

EXP. 7-digit number is divisible by 9 means that the sum of digits is divisible by 9.

After deleting last digit from right, 6-digit number is divisible by 6. Which means the number is even and sum is divisible by 3. Hence, 6th digit will be 2 or 4 or 8.

After deleting last 2 digits from right, 5-digit number is divisible by 5. Hence, 5th digit is 5.

After deleting last 3 digits from right, 4-digit number is divisible by 4. Hence, 4th digit is 2 or 4 or 8.

After deleting last 4 digits from right, 3-digit number is divisible by 3. Hence, the sum of digits should be divisible by 3.

After deleting last 5 digits from right, 2-digit number is divisible by 2. Hence, 2nd digit is 2 or 4 or 8.

 

From all these we can find that middle 3 digits, the 3rd, 4th and 5th are 1, 2 and 5 whose sum is 8.

 

6.) Two friends X and Y start running and they run together for 50 m in the same direction and reach a point. X turns right and runs 60 m, while Y turns left and runs 40 m. Then X turns left and runs 50 m and stops, while Y turns right and runs 50 m and then stops. How far are the two friends from other now?

(A) 100 m

(B) 90 m

(C) 60 m

(D) 50 m

ANS. A

EXP. 

Hence distance between X and Y is 100 m.

 

7.) Which date of June 2099 among the following is Sunday?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(C) 6

(D) 7

ANS. D

EXP. 5 June 2022 is Sunday.

From 2022 to 2099 there are 77 + 19 extra days. 

There will be 5 odd days.

So, 5 June 2099 will be Friday. Hence 7 June 2099 will be Sunday.

 

8.) A bill for Rs 1,840 is paid in the denominations of Rs 50, Rs 20 and Rs 10 notes. 50 notes in all are used. Consider the following statements:

1. 25 notes of Rs 50 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of Rs 20 and Rs 10.

2. 35 notes of Rs 20 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of Rs 50 and Rs 10.

3. 20 notes of Rs 10 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of Rs 50 and Rs 20.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

ANS. D

EXP. Let x, y and z be the number of Rs 50, Rs 20 and Rs 10 notes.

Then 50x + 20y + 10z = 1840

Also, x + y + z = 50

As per statement 1:

25 notes of Rs 50 = Rs. 1250

Remaining amount = 1840 – 1250 = 590

Remaining notes = 25

If we take 25 notes of Rs 20, then also it cost Rs 500 only. Thus statement 1 is incorrect.

 

As per statement 2:

35 notes of Rs 30 = Rs. 700

Remaining amount = 1840 – 700 = 1140

Remaining notes = 15

If we take 15 notes of Rs 50, then also it cost Rs 750 only. Thus statement 2 is incorrect.

 

As per statement:

20 notes of Rs 10 = Rs. 200

Remaining amount = 1840 – 200 = 1640

Remaining notes = 30

If we take 30 notes of Rs 50, then also it cost Rs 1500 only. Thus statement 3 is also incorrect.

 

9.) Which number amongst ,  and  is the smallest?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

ANS. B

EXP. The numbers are ,  and  or ,  and 

We have to compare only two numbers . 

 =  = 

Also  =  = 

Thus,  is the smallest number.

 

10.) The digits 1 to 9 are arranged in three rows in such a way that each row contains three digits, and the number formed in the second row is twice the number formed in the first row; and the number formed in the third row is thrice the number formed in the first row. Repetition of digits is not allowed. If only three of the four digits, 2, 3, 7 and 9 are allowed to use in the first row, how many such combinations are possible to be arranged in the three rows?

(A) 4

(B) 3

(C) 2

(D) 1

ANS. A

EXP. The possible combinations are 192, 219, 273 and 327

And these 4 numbers will have 2 more solutions in each row by multiplying them with 2 & 3 each.

 

Hence only 4 solutions are possible.

 

11.) Read the following passage and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

“In simple matters like shoe-making, we think only a specially trained person will serve our purpose, but in politics, we presume that everyone who knows how to get votes knows how to administer a State. When we are ill, we call for a trained physician, whose degree is a guarantee of specific preparation and technical competence-we do not ask for the handsomest physician, or the most eloquent one: well then, when the whole State is ill, should we not look for the service and guidance of the wisest and the best?

 

Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the message of the author of the passage?

(A) We assume that in a democracy, any politician is qualified to administer a state.

(B) Politicians should be selected from those trained in administration.

(C) We need to devise a method of barring incompetence from public office.

(D) As voters select their administrators, the eligibility of politicians to administer a State cannot be questioned.

ANS. B

EXP. Let us use the elimination method to select the correct answer.

 

Although, Statement A is directly mentioned in the passage, still it is not reflecting the message of the author in the best way.

Statement C cannot be the answer, because the passage is not emphasizing on the need to devise a method of barring incompetence from public office.

Statement D cannot be the answer, because the passage is silent on questioning or unquestioning of the eligibility of politician in a democracy.

 

Statement B is truly reflected from the crux of the passage. We can also refer to phrases used in the passage in support of statement B such as “trained physician” or “service or guidance of the wisest and best”. Therefore, this statement best describes the message of the author of the passage.

 

12.) Read the following passage and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

The poverty line is quite unsatisfactory when it comes to grasping the extent of poverty in India. It is not only because of its extremely narrow definition of ‘who is poor’ and the debatable methodology used to count the poor, but also because of a more fundamental assumption underlying it. It exclusively relies on the notion of poverty as insufficient income or insufficient purchasing power. One can better categorize it by calling it income poverty. If poverty is ultimately about deprivations affecting human well-being, then income poverty is only one aspect of it. Poverty of a life, in our view, lies not merely in the impoverished state in which the person actually lives, but also in the lack of real opportunity given by social constraints as well as personal circumstances – to choose other types of living. Even the relevance of low incomes, meagre possessions, and other aspects of what are standardly seen as economic poverty relate ultimately to their role in curtailing capabilities, i.e., their role in severely restricting the choices people have to lead variable and valued lives.

 

Question: Why is the methodology adopted in India to count the ‘poor’ debatable?

(A) There is some confusion regarding what should constitute the ‘poverty line’.

(B) There are wide diversities in the condition of the rural and urban poor.

(C) There is no uniform global standard for measuring income poverty.

(D) It is based on the proposition of poverty as meagre income or buying capacity.

ANS. D

EXP.  The passage is clearly mentioning the underlying assumption for narrow and debatable definition of ‘who is poor’, as it says, “it exclusively relies on the notion of poverty as insufficient income or insufficient purchasing power”. Therefore, statement D is correct.

 

Moreover, the passage is not referring to any ‘confusion’, ‘wide diversities’ or ‘uniform global standards’ in support of debatable definition of ‘poor’.

 

13.) Read the following passage and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

The poverty line is quite unsatisfactory when it comes to grasping the extent of poverty in India. It is not only because of its extremely narrow definition of ‘who is poor’ and the debatable methodology used to count the poor, but also because of a more fundamental assumption underlying it. It exclusively relies on the notion of poverty as insufficient income or insufficient purchasing power. One can better categorize it by calling it income poverty. If poverty is ultimately about deprivations affecting human well-being, then income poverty is only one aspect of it. Poverty of a life, in our view, lies not merely in the impoverished state in which the person actually lives, but also in the lack of real opportunity given by social constraints as well as personal circumstances – to choose other types of living. Even the relevance of low incomes, meagre possessions, and other aspects of what are standardly seen as economic poverty relate ultimately to their role in curtailing capabilities, i.e., their role in severely restricting the choices people have to lead variable and valued lives.

 

Question: Why is income poverty only one measure of counting the ‘poor’?

(A) It talks of only one kind of deprivation ignoring all others.

(B) Other deprivations in a human life have noting to do with lack of purchasing power.

(C) Income poverty is not a permanent condition, it changes from time to time.

(D) Income poverty restricts human choices only at a point of time.

ANS. A 

EXP. The passage indicates that if poverty is ultimately about deprivations affecting human well-being, then income poverty is only one aspect of it, which means income poverty talks of only one kind of deprivation ignoring all others. Therefore, statement A is correct.

 

14.) Read the following passage and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

The poverty line is quite unsatisfactory when it comes to grasping the extent of poverty in India. It is not only because of its extremely narrow definition of ‘who is poor’ and the debatable methodology used to count the poor, but also because of a more fundamental assumption underlying it. It exclusively relies on the notion of poverty as insufficient income or insufficient purchasing power. One can better categorize it by calling it income poverty. If poverty is ultimately about deprivations affecting human well-being, then income poverty is only one aspect of it. Poverty of a life, in our view, lies not merely in the impoverished state in which the person actually lives, but also in the lack of real opportunity given by social constraints as well as personal circumstances – to choose other types of living. Even the relevance of low incomes, meagre possessions, and other aspects of what are standardly seen as economic poverty relate ultimately to their role in curtailing capabilities, i.e., their role in severely restricting the choices people have to lead variable and valued lives.

 

Question: What does the author mean by ‘poverty of a life’?

(A) All deprivations in a human life which stem not only from lack of income but lack of real opportunities.

(B) Impoverished state of poor people in rural and urban areas

(C) Missed opportunities in diverse personal circumstances 

(D) Material as well as non-material deprivations in a human life which restrict human choices permanently

ANS. A

EXP. ‘Poverty of a life’, as per passage means all deprivations in a human life which stem not only from lack of income but lack of real opportunities.

 

15.) X and Y run a 3 km race along a circular course of length 300 m. Their speeds are in the ratio 3:2. If they start together in the same direction, how many times would the first one pass the other (the start-off is not counted are passing)?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

ANS.

EXP. Ratio of 3:2 means when X will run 3 rounds Y will cover 2 rounds and they will meet at the starting point only. 

They have to run 10 rounds of 300 m.

X will cover 9 rounds when Y will cover 6 rounds and they will meet every 3 rounds of X.

Hence, they will pass each other 3 times.

 

16.) If the order of the letters in the English alphabet is reversed and each letter represents the letter whose position it occupies, then which one of the following represents ‘LUCKNOW’

(A) OGXPMLD

(B) OGXQMLE

(C) OFXPMLE

(D) OFXPMLD

ANS. D

EXP. When alphabets will be arranged in reverse order we will see that ‘LUCKNOW’ will be represented by ‘OFXPMLD’.

 

17.) In a tournament of Chess having 150 entrants, a player is eliminated whenever he loses a match. It is given that no match results in a tie/ draw. How many matches are played in the entire tournament?

(A) 151

(B) 150

(C) 149

(D) 148

ANS. C

EXP. With 150 entrants first round will have 75 matches where 75 players will be eliminated.

In second round there will be 37 matches and 1 player will remain idle for next round.

Then in third round there will be 38 players who will play 19 matches.

In this pattern total number of matches will be 149.

 

18.) How many 3-digit natural numbers (without repetition of digits) are there such that each digit is odd and the number is divisible by 5?

(A) 8

(B) 12

(C) 16

(D) 24

ANS. B

EXP. For a 3-digit number with all digits odd possible values are 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9.

Last digit will be 5 as it is divisible by 5.

Hence the first two places will have 4 and 3 options.

Thus, total possible solutions are: 4 × 3 = 12.

 

19.) Consider the Question and two Statements given below:

Question: Is x an integer?

Statement – 1:  is not an integer.

Statement – 2: 3x is an integer.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?

(A) Statement -1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(B) Statement – 2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(C) Both Statement – 1 and Statement – 2 are sufficient to answer the Question

(D) Both Statement -1 and Statement – 2 are not sufficient to answer the Question

ANS. 

EXP. Statement 1: Two possible values of x can be 25 and 25.5 (one is integer and other is not integer)

Statement 2: Two possible values of x can be 5 and 5/3 (one is integer and other is not integer)

Hence correct answer is D.

 

20.) The increase in the price of a certain item was 25%. Then the price was decreased by 20% and then again increased by 10%. What is the resultant increase in the price?

(A) 5%

(B) 10%

(C) 12.5%

(D) 15%

ANS. B

EXP. Suppose original number is x

Then after change: x × 1.25 × 0.80 × 1.10 = 1.10 x

Net change is 10% increase.

 

21.) Passage – 1

In some places in the world, the productivity of staples such as rice and wheat has reached a plateau. Neither new strains nor fancy agrochemicals are raising the yields. Nor is there much unfarmed land left that is suitable to be brought under the plough. If global temperature continues to rise, some places will become unsuitable for farming. Application of technology can help overcome these problems. Agricultural technology is changing fast. Much of this change is brought about by affluent farmers in the West/Americas. Techniques developed in the West are being adapted in some places to make tropical crops more productive. Technology is of little use if it is not adapted. In the developing world, that applies as much to existing farming techniques as it does to the latest advances in genetic modification. Extending to the smallholders and subsistence farmers of Africa and Asia the best of today's agricultural practices, in such simple matters as how much fertilizers to apply and when, would lead to a greatly increased availability of food for humanity. So would things like better roads and storage facilities, to allow for the carriage of surpluses to markets and reduce wastage.

 

Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Development of agricultural technology is confined to developed countries.

2. Agricultural technology is not adapted in developing countries.

Which of the following assumptions is/are valid?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS. B 

EXP. Statement 2 is correct, as it is clearly mentioned in the passage that technological advances either in the existing farming techniques or genetic modifications are not being adapted by the developing countries.

 

Statement 1 is not correct as nowhere it is given in the passage that agricultural technology is confined only to the developed world.

 

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

 

22.) Passage – 1

In some places in the world, the productivity of staples such as rice and wheat has reached a plateau. Neither new strains nor fancy agrochemicals are raising the yields. Nor is there much unfarmed land left that is suitable to be brought under the plough. If global temperature continues to rise, some places will become unsuitable for farming. Application of technology can help overcome these problems. Agricultural technology is changing fast. Much of this change is brought about by affluent farmers in the West/Americas. Techniques developed in the West are being adapted in some places to make tropical crops more productive. Technology is of little use if it is not adapted. In the developing world, that applies as much to existing farming techniques as it does to the latest advances in genetic modification. Extending to the smallholders and subsistence farmers of Africa and Asia the best of today's agricultural practices, in such simple matters as how much fertilizers to apply and when, would lead to a greatly increased availability of food for humanity. So would things like better roads and storage facilities, to allow for the carriage of surpluses to markets and reduce wastage.

 

Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Poor countries need to bring about change in their existing farming techniques.

2. Developed countries have better infrastructure and they waste less food.

Which of the following assumptions is/are valid?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS. A

EXP. Statement 1 is correct, as it can be inferred from the passage that developing countries need to adapt to the technological changes being introduced.

 

Statement 2 is incorrect as there is no mention in the passage about the infrastructure and wastage of food in the developed countries.

 

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

 

23.) Passage – 1

In some places in the world, the productivity of staples such as rice and wheat has reached a plateau. Neither new strains nor fancy agrochemicals are raising the yields. Nor is there much unfarmed land left that is suitable to be brought under the plough. If global temperature continues to rise, some places will become unsuitable for farming. Application of technology can help overcome these problems. Agricultural technology is changing fast. Much of this change is brought about by affluent farmers in the West/Americas. Techniques developed in the West are being adapted in some places to make tropical crops more productive. Technology is of little use if it is not adapted. In the developing world, that applies as much to existing farming techniques as it does to the latest advances in genetic modification. Extending to the smallholders and subsistence farmers of Africa and Asia the best of today's agricultural practices, in such simple matters as how much fertilizers to apply and when, would lead to a greatly increased availability of food for humanity. So would things like better roads and storage facilities, to allow for the carriage of surpluses to markets and reduce wastage.

 

Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Growing enough food for future generations will be a challenge.

2. Corporate farming is a viable option for food security in poor countries.

Which of the following assumptions is/are valid?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS. D

EXP. From the passage none of the statements can be inferred. As the passage does not talk about the challenges to the future generation as well as about the corporate farming.

 

Hence option D is the correct answer.

 

24.) The letters A, B, C, D and E are arranged in such a way that there are exactly two letters between A and E. How many such arrangements are possible?

(A) 12

(B) 18

(C) 24

(D) 36

ANS. C

EXP. There are five letters A, B, C, D and E.

The placement will be A _ _ E. So, we have 3 ways of choosing middle two letters, in total 3 × 2 = 6

Then two in A and E can be placed.

And another 2 ways as 6th letter can be at first place or in last place.

Number of possible ways are: 6 × 2 × 2 = 24

 

25.) Consider the Question and two statements given below:

Question: Is Z brother of X?

Statement-1: X is a brother of Y and Y is a brother of Z

Statement-2: X, Y and Z are siblings

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and Statements?

(A) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(B) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(C) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question

(D) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question

ANS. D

EXP. X is a brother of Y and Y is a brother of Z means that X, Y and Z are brothers where X and Y are brothers. But it is not clear whether Z is male or female. 

From Statement-2 also we cannot determine whether Z is male or female.

 

Hence, both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question.

 

26.) On one side of a 1.01 km long road, 101 plants are planted at equal distance from each other. What is the total distance between 5 consecutive plants?

(A) 40 m

(B) 40.4 m

(C) 50 m

(D) 50.5 m

ANS. B

EXP. 1.01 km = 1010 metres

101 plants are planted at equal distances means there are 100 spaces in between. Let the distance between 2 plants be x.

x × 100 = 1010

x = 10.1 metres

 

Total distance between 5 consecutive plants will be 4 spaces which is = 4 × 10.1 = 40.4 metres

 

27.) A, B and C are three places such that there are three different roads from A to B, four different roads from B to C and three different roads from A to C. In how many different ways can one travel from A to C using these roads?

(A) 10

(B) 13

(C) 15

(D) 36

ANS.

EXP. Number of roads from A to B are: 3

From B to C are: 4

Hence, from A to C are: 3 × 4 = 12

 

And it is given that there 3 direct routes from A to C.

 

Hence, total number of ways from A to C are: 12 + 3 = 15

 

28.) A has some coins. He gives half of the coins and 2 more to B. B gives half of the coins and 2 more to C. C gives half of the coins and 2 more to D. The number of coins D has now is the smallest 2-digit number. How many coins does A have in the beginning?

(A) 76

(B) 68

(C) 60

(D) 52

ANS. D

EXP. Let A have ‘x’ number of coins

So, B will have =  + 2 

C will have =  + 2 =  + 3

D will have =  + 2 =  + 3.5 = 10 (smallest 2-digit number)

 

So, x = 52

 

29. In the series AABABCABCDABCDE….., which letter appears at the 100th  place?

(A) G

(B) H

(C) I

(D) J

ANS. C

EXP. A AB ABC ABCD ABCDE

Number of letters in each group are in increasing order: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, …… and so on.

Sum of n number of natural numbers = 

Sum of 14 natural numbers =  = 105

Which means 100th letter will fall in 14th group which will go till 14 letters (N) in the alphabets.

Hence, 100th letter will be I.

 

30.) Three persons A, B and C are standing in a queue not necessarily in the same order. There are 4 persons between A and B, and 7 persons between B and C. If there are 11 persons ahead of C and 13 behind A, what could be the minimum number of persons in the queue?

(A) 22

(B) 28

(C) 32

(D) 38

ANS. B

EXP. Possible arrangement will be 11 persons before C then 7 persons between B and C then 4 people between B and A.

There are 13 persons behind A. So, the arrangement is 

11, C, 2, A, 4, B, 8

 

11 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 4 + 1 + 8 = 28 persons

 

31.) Passage—I 

Natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth. Therefore. the set of existing organisms can never be fully prepared for environmental catastrophes that await life. An outcome of this is the extinction of those species which cannot overcome environmental adversity. This failure to survive, in modern terms, can be attributed to the genomes which are unable to withstand geological vagaries or biological mishaps (infections, diseases and so on). In biological evolution on the earth, extinction of species has been a major feature. The earth may presently have up to ten million species, yet more than 90% of species that have ever lived on the earth are now extinct. Once again, the creationist doctrines fail to satisfactorily address why a divine creator will firstly bother to create millions of species and then allow them to perish. The Darwinian explanation for extinct life is one again simple, elegant and at once convincing – organisms go extinct as a function of environmental or Biological assaults for which their inheritance deems them ill- equipped. Therefore, the so-called Darwinian theory of evolution is not a theory at all. Evolution happens—thin is a fact. The mechanism of evolution (Darwin proposed natural selection) is amply supported by scientific data. Indeed, to date no single zoological, botanical, geological, paleontological, genetic or physical evidence has refuted either of the central two main Darwinian ideas. If religion is not taken into consideration, Darwinian laws are acceptable by Copernicus, Galileo, Newton and Einstein – sets of natural laws that explain natural phenomenon in the universe.

 

Question: According to the passage, natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth as

1. species are not fully prepared to face the environmental changes that await them face extinction.

2. all the existing species would get extinct as their genomes will not withstand biological mishaps

3. inability of the genome to withstand environmental changes would result in extinction

4. extinction of species is a common feature

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2 and 4

ANS. C

EXP. Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct, as all of these can be inferred from the passage.

 

Statement 2 is incorrect, as the passage talks about certain genomes that are unable to withstand geological vagaries or biological mishaps (infections, diseases and so on), that would get extinct and no “all the existing species”.

 

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

 

32.) Passage—I 

Natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth. Therefore. the set of existing organisms can never be fully prepared for environmental catastrophes that await life. An outcome of this is the extinction of those species which cannot overcome environmental adversity. This failure to survive, in modern terms, can be attributed to the genomes which are unable to withstand geological vagaries or biological mishaps (infections, diseases and so on). In biological evolution on the earth, extinction of species has been a major feature. The earth may presently have up to ten million species, yet more than 90% of species that have ever lived on the earth are now extinct. Once again, the creationist doctrines fail to satisfactorily address why a divine creator will firstly bother to create millions of species and then allow them to perish. The Darwinian explanation for extinct life is one again simple, elegant and at once convincing – organisms go extinct as a function of environmental or Biological assaults for which their inheritance deems them ill- equipped. Therefore, the so-called Darwinian theory of evolution is not a theory at all. Evolution happens—thin is a fact. The mechanism of evolution (Darwin proposed natural selection) is amply supported by scientific data. Indeed, to date no single zoological, botanical, geological, paleontological, genetic or physical evidence has refuted either of the central two main Darwinian ideas. If religion is not taken into consideration, Darwinian laws are acceptable by Copernicus, Galileo, Newton and Einstein – sets of natural laws that explain natural phenomenon in the universe.

 

Question: The passage suggests that Darwinian theory of evolution is not a theory at all because

(A) it does not satisfy the creationist doctrine 

(B) extinction is a function of environment and biological assaults

(C) there are no evidences to refute it

(D) existence of organisms is attributed to a creator.

ANS. B

EXP. It can be inferred from the following lines in the passage –

 

“the Darwinian explanation for extinct life is one again simple, elegant and at once convincing – organisms go extinct as a function of environmental or Biological assaults for which their inheritance deems them ill- equipped.”

 

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

 

33.) Passage—I 

Natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth. Therefore. the set of existing organisms can never be fully prepared for environmental catastrophes that await life. An outcome of this is the extinction of those species which cannot overcome environmental adversity. This failure to survive, in modern terms, can be attributed to the genomes which are unable to withstand geological vagaries or biological mishaps (infections, diseases and so on). In biological evolution on the earth, extinction of species has been a major feature. The earth may presently have up to ten million species, yet more than 90% of species that have ever lived on the earth are now extinct. Once again, the creationist doctrines fail to satisfactorily address why a divine creator will firstly bother to create millions of species and then allow them to perish. The Darwinian explanation for extinct life is one again simple, elegant and at once convincing – organisms go extinct as a function of environmental or Biological assaults for which their inheritance deems them ill- equipped. Therefore, the so-called Darwinian theory of evolution is not a theory at all. Evolution happens—thin is a fact. The mechanism of evolution (Darwin proposed natural selection) is amply supported by scientific data. Indeed, to date no single zoological, botanical, geological, paleontological, genetic or physical evidence has refuted either of the central two main Darwinian ideas. If religion is not taken into consideration, Darwinian laws are acceptable by Copernicus, Galileo, Newton and Einstein – sets of natural laws that explain natural phenomenon in the universe.

 

Question: With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Only species that have the ability to overcome environmental catastrophes will survive and perpetuate.

2. More than 90% of the species on the earth are in the danger of getting extinct due to drastic changes in the environment.

3. Darwin’s theory explains all the natural phenomena.

Which of the following assumptions is/are valid?

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 3 only

(D) 1,2 and 3

ANS. A

EXP. Only statement 1 is correct as from the passage it can be clearly inferred that only the species that have the ability to overcome environmental catastrophes will be able to survive and perpetuate.

 

Other 2 statements are factually incorrect.

 

Hence, option  A is the correct answer. 

 

34.) Passage –2

With steady economic growth, higher literacy and increasing skill levels, the number of Indian middle-class families has gone up exponentially. Direct results of the affluence have been changes in dietary patterns and energy consumption levels. People have moved to a higher protein-based diet like milk products, fish and meat, all of which need significantly more water to produce than cereal based diets. Increasing use of electronic and electric machines/gadgets and motor vehicles needs more and more energy and generation of energy needs water.

Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?

(A) People should be persuaded to continue with the mainly Indian traditional cereal-based diets.

(B) India needs to focus on developing agricultural productivity and capacity for more energy generation in the coming years.

(C) Modern technological developments result in the change of cultural and social behavior of the people.

(D) Water management practices in India need to change dramatically in the coming years.

ANS. B

EXP. The statement in option B best reflects the crux of the passage, as the passage talks about both the agricultural productivity and need for energy generation.

 

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

 

35.) How many seconds in total are there in x weeks, x days, x hours, x minutes and x seconds?

(A) 11580x

(B) 11581x

(C) 694860x

(D) 694861x

ANS. D

EXP. x weeks = 7x days

7x + x days = 8x × 24 hours = 192x hours

192x + x hours = 193x × 60 minutes = 11, 580x minutes

11, 580x + x minutes = 11,581x × 60 seconds = 6, 94, 860x seconds

6, 94, 860x seconds + x seconds = 6, 94, 861x seconds

 

36.) P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members of a family. R is the spouse of Q. U is the mother of T and S is the daughter of U. P’s daughter is T and R’s son is P. There are two couples in the family. Which one of the following is correct?

(A) Q is the grandfather of T

(B) Q is the grandmother of T

(C) R is the mother of P

(D) T is the granddaughter of Q 

ANS. D

EXP. The relationship among the following will be:

R & Q are spouses and U & P are spouses.

P is R’s son and T and S are P’s daughters.

 

Hence, T is the granddaughter of Q.

 

37.) Consider the Question and two Statements given below in respect of 3 cities P,Q and R in a state:

Question: How far is city P from city Q?

Statement-1: City Q is 18 km from city R

Statement-2: City P is 43 km from city R

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and Statements?

(A) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(B) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(C) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question

(D) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question

ANS. D

EXP. City Q is 18 km from city R and City P is 43 km from city R.

So, it could be R _ Q _ P 

Or P _ Q _ R

 

Hence, both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question.

 

38.) Two statements followed by four Conclusions are given below. You have to take the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically follows/follow from the Statements, disregarding the commonly known facts:

Statement –1: All pens are books

Statement –2: No chair is a pen

Conclusion – I: All chairs are books

Conclusion – II: Some chairs are pens 

Conclusion – III:  All books are chairs

Conclusion – IV: No chair is a book.

Which one of the following is correct?

(A) Only Conclusion – I

(B) Only Conclusion – II

(C) Both Conclusion – III and Conclusion – IV

(D) None of the Conclusions follows

ANS. D

EXP. Following are the possible ways we can draw the statements:

  

Hence, none of the conclusions follows. 

 

39.) Three statements followed by three Conclusions are given below. You have to take the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically follows/follow from the Statements, disregarding the commonly known facts:

Statement –1: Some doctors are teachers

Statement –2: All teachers are engineers

Statement –3: All engineers are scientists

Conclusion – I: Some scientists are doctors

Conclusion – II: All engineers are doctors  

Conclusion – III:  Some engineers are doctors

Which one of the following is correct?

(A) Only Conclusion – I

(B) Only Conclusion – II

(C) Both Conclusion – I and Conclusion – III

(D) Both Conclusion – I and Conclusion – II

ANS. C

EXP. Following are the possible ways we can draw the statements:

 

Hence, both Conclusion – I and Conclusion – III are correct.

 

40.) Eight students A, B, C, D, E, F, F, G and H sit around a circular table, equidistant from each other, facing the center of the table, not necessarily in the same order. B and D sit neither adjacent to C nor opposite to C. A sits in between E and D, and F sits in between B and H. Which one of the following is definitely correct?

(A) B sits in between A and G

(B) C sits opposite to G

(C) E sits opposite to F

(D) None of the above

ANS. D

EXP. Possible arrangements are:

 

Hence, none of the above can be said with certainty.

 

41.) Passage – 1

For two or three generations past, ever increasing numbers of individuals have been living as workers merely, not as human beings. An excessive amount of labour is rule today in every circle of society, with the result that man's spiritual element cannot thrive. He finds it very difficult to spend his little leisure in serious activities. He does not want to think; or he cannot even if he wants to. He seeks not self-improvement, but entertainment which would enable him to be mentally idle and to forget his usual activities. Therefore, the so-called culture of our age is dependant more on cinema than on theatre, more on newspapers, magazines and crime stories than on serious literature.

Question: The passage is based on the idea that

(A) man should not work hard

(B) the great evil of our age is overstrain

(C) man cannot think well

(D) man cannot care for his spiritual welfare

ANS. B

EXP. The statement in option B is the most appropriate answer. Although statement D is also a close answer. But, it states that man “cannot” care for his spiritual welfare, on the other hand, the passage indicates that man “does not” care for his spiritual welfare.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

 

42.) Passage – 1

For two or three generations past, ever increasing numbers of individuals have been living as workers merely, not as human beings. An excessive amount of labour is rule today in every circle of society, with the result that man's spiritual element cannot thrive. He finds it very difficult to spend his little leisure in serious activities. He does not want to think; or he cannot even if he wants to. He seeks not self-improvement, but entertainment which would enable him to be mentally idle and to forget his usual activities. Therefore, the so-called culture of our age is dependant more on cinema than on theatre, more on newspapers, magazines and crime stories than on serious literature.

Question: Man does not seek self-improvement because he

(A) is not intellectually capable

(B) has no time to do so

(C) is disturbed by materialism

(D) loves amusement and is mentally idle

ANS. D

EXP. The answer can be inferred from the following lines in the passage –

“He does not want to think; or he cannot even if he wants to. He seeks not self-improvement, but entertainment which would enable him to be mentally idle and to forget his usual activities.”

 

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

 

 

43.) Passage – 2

The demographic dividend, which has begun in India and is expected to last another few decades, is a great window of opportunity. The demographic dividend is basically a swelling in the working age population, which conversely means that the relative ratio of very young and very old will, for a while, be on the decline. From the experience of Ireland and China, we know that this can be a source of energy and an, engine of economic growth. The demographic dividend tends to raise a nation's savings rate since in any nation, it is the working age population that is the main saver. And since the savings rate is an important driver of growth, this should help elevate our growth rate. However, the benefits of demographic dividend depend on the quality of the working age population. And this implies ringing back the importance of education, acquisition of skills and human capital.

 

Question: Which of the following would invariably happen in a country, when the demographic dividend has begun to operate?

I. The number of illiterate people will decrease.

II. The ratio of very old and very young will decrease for a while.

III. Population growth rate will quickly stabilize.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) I and II only

(B) II only

(C) I and III only

(D) I, II and III

ANS. B

EXP. Only statement II is correct, as can be seen from the following lines –

“The demographic dividend is basically a swelling in the working age population, which conversely means that the relative ratio of very young and very old will, for a while, be on the decline.”

 

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

 

44.) Passage – 2

The demographic dividend, which has begun in India and is expected to last another few decades, is a great window of opportunity. The demographic dividend is basically a swelling in the working age population, which conversely means that the relative ratio of very young and very old will, for a while, be on the decline. From the experience of Ireland and China, we know that this can be a source of energy and an, engine of economic growth. The demographic dividend tends to raise a nation's savings rate since in any nation, it is the working age population that is the main saver. And since the savings rate is an important driver of growth, this should help elevate our growth rate. However, the benefits of demographic dividend depend on the quality of the working age population. And this implies ringing back the importance of education, acquisition of skills and human capital.

 

Question: With reference to the passage, which of the following inferences can be drawn?

I. Demographic dividend is an essential condition for a country to rapidly increase its economic growth rate.

II. Promotion of higher education is an essential condition for a country for its rapid economic growth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) Both I and II

(D) Neither I nor II

ANS. D

EXP. Both the statements are incorrect, as nothing in the passage has been mentioned as an “essential condition”.

 

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

 

45.) Five friends P, Q, X, Y and Z purchased some notebooks. The relevant information is given below:

I. Z purchased 8 notebooks more than X did.

II. P and Q together purchased 21 notebooks.

III. Q purchased 5 notebooks less than P did.

IV. X and Y together purchased 28 notebooks.

V. P purchased 5 notebooks more than X did.

If each notebook is priced ₹ 40, then what is the total cost of all the notebooks?

(A) ₹ 2,600

(B) ₹ 2,400

(C) ₹ 2,360

(D) ₹ 2,320

ANS. A

EXP. According to the statements:

I. Z = X + 8

II. P + Q = 21

III. Q = P – 5

IV. X + Y = 28

V. P = X + 5

Solving II and II we get P = 13 and Q = 8

Putting value of P in V we get X = 8

And then we can find Y = 20 (from IV) and Z = 16 (from I)

In total P + Q + X + Y + Z = 65 books

Each book is priced ₹ 40. 

Hence, 65 books = 65 × 40 = 2,600

 

46.)  A man started from home at 14:30 hours and drove to village, arriving there when the village clock indicated 15:15 hours. After staying for 25 minutes, he drove back by a different route of length 1.25 times the first route at a rate twice as fast reaching home at 16:00 hours. As compared to the clock at home, the village clock is

(A) 10 minutes slow

(B) 5 minutes slow 

(C) 10 minutes fast

(D) 5 minutes fast

ANS. D 

EXP. Let us assume that the distance from home to village is ‘x’ and time taken to travel this distance is ‘t’.

His home clock is on correct time and according to this clock he took 90 minutes to go from home to village and then reaching back home.

He stayed for 25 minutes hence, in total 65 minutes were spent in travelling, in which ‘t’ time was taken to go from home to village.

Time taken to reach home from village with 1.25 times of ‘x’ and double speed = 

 

So, t +  = 65

So, t = 40 minutes

But according to village he took 45 minutes.

Hence, village clock is 5 minutes fast. 

 

47.) A person X wants to distribute some pens among six children A, B, C, D, E and F. Suppose A gets twice the number of pens received by B, three times that of pens received by C, four time that of D, five times that of E and six times that of F. what is the minimum number of pens X should buy so that the number of pens each one geta is an even number?

(A) 147

(B) 150

(C) 294

(D) 300

ANS. C

EXP. According to the question, let us assume that 

A will get x pens

B will get  pens

C will get  pens

D will get  pens

E will get  pens

F will get  pens

 

LCM of 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 is 60.

So, A = 60x

B = 30x

C = 20x

D = 15x

E = 12x 

F = 10x

Total is 147x

Everyone should receive pens in even number. Hence if x =1 D will have odd number of pens, but when x = 2 everyone will have even number of pens.

Thus, total number of pens required are 147 × 2 = 294

 

48.) Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting equidistant from each other around a circular table (facing centre of the table).

Consider the following Question and two Statements given below:

Question: Who is sitting on the immediate left of A?

Statement-1: B is sitting opposite to C and D is sitting opposite to E.

Statement-2: F is sitting on the immediate left of B.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of Question and the Statements?

(A) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(B) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(C) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question

(D) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question

ANS. D

EXP. There can be 2 orders for the given information:

  

Thus, Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question

 

49.)  Consider the Question and two Statements given below:

Question: What is the age of Manisha?

Statement-1: Manisha is 24 years younger than her mother.

Statement-2: 5 years later, the ages of Manisha and her mother will be in the ratio 3:5.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of Question and the Statements?

(A) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(B) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(C) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question

(D) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question

ANS. C

EXP. Let age of Manisha = x then as per statement 1 age of mother = x + 24

As per statement 2:

 = 

x = 31 years

So, Manisha’s age = 31 years.

Thus, both statements are suffiecient to answer the question.

 

50.) Six lectures A, B, C, D, E and F each of one hour duration are scheduled between 8:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m.

Consider the following Question and two Statements given below:

Question: Which lecture is in the third period?

Statement-1: Lecture F is preceded by A and followed by C.

Statement-2: There is no lecture after lecture B.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of Question and the Statements?

(A) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(B) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(C) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question

(D) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question

ANS. D

EXP. From given information we can conclude that lectures AFC are in order and B is the last lecture. But no information is provided for D and E. Thus, Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question.

 

51.) Passage – 1

In an economic organization, allowing mankind to benefit by the productivity of machines should lead to a very good life of leisure, and much leisure is apt to be tedious except to those who have intelligent activities and interests. If a leisured population is to be happy, it must be educated population, and must be educated with a view to enjoyment as well as to the direct usefulness of technical knowledge.

Question: Which of the following best reflects the underlying tone of the passage?

(A) Only an educated population can best make use of the benefits of economic progress.

(B) All economic development should be aimed at the creation of leisure.

(C) An increase in the educated population of a country leads to an increase in the happiness of its people.

(D) Use of machines should be encouraged in order to create a large leisured population.

ANS. A

EXP. The tone of the passage can be identified by the statement given in option A. 

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

 

52.) Passage – 2

If presents bring less thrill now that we are grown up, perhaps it is because we have too much already; or perhaps it is because we have lost the fullness of the joy of giving, and with it the fullness of receiving. Children’s fears are poignant, their miseries are acute, but they do not look too forward nor too far backward. Their joys are clear and complete, because they have not yet learnt always to add ‘but’ to every proposition. Perhaps we are too cautious, too anxious, too sceptical. Perhaps some of our cares would shrink if we thought less about them and entered with more single-minded enjoyment into the happiness that come our way.

Question: With reference to the passage, which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) It is not possible for adults to feel thrilled by presents.

(B) There can be more than one reason why adults feel less thrilled by presents.

(C) The author does not know why adult feel less thrilled by presents.

(D) Adults have less capacity to feel the joy of loving or being loved.

ANS. B

EXP. The statement in option B is correct. 

The passage clearly indicates the reasons why the adults feel less thrilled by the presents.

 

53.) Passage – 2

If presents bring less thrill now that we are grown up, perhaps it is because we have too much already; or perhaps it is because we have lost the fullness of the joy of giving, and with it the fullness of receiving. Children’s fears are poignant, their miseries are acute, but they do not look too forward nor too far backward. Their joys are clear and complete, because they have not yet learnt always to add ‘but’ to every proposition. Perhaps we are too cautious, too anxious, too sceptical. Perhaps some of our cares would shrink if we thought less about them and entered with more single-minded enjoyment into the happiness that come our way.

Question: The author of the passage is against:

(A) worrying too much about the past and future.

(B) being in the habit of thinking about presents.

(C) not being thrilled by new things.

(D) giving and receiving joy only partially.

ANS. A

EXP. The author of the passage is against worrying too much about the past and the future.

 

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

 

54.) Let A, B and C represent distinct non-zero digits. Suppose x is the sum of all possible 3-digit numbers formed by A, B and C without repetition. 

Consider the following statements:

I. The 4-digit least value of x is 1332.

II. The 3-digit greatest value of x is 888.

Which of the above statements is /are correct?

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) Both I and II

(D) Neither I nor II

ANS. A

EXP. The smallest non – zero distinct numbers are: 1, 2 and 3.

The possible 3 digit numbers are 123, 132, 213, 231, 312, 321.

Smallest value of x = 123 + 132 + 213 + 231 + 312 + 321 = 1332

Thus, statement I is correct.

The greatest non – zero distinct numbers are: 7, 8 and 9.

The possible 3 digit numbers are 789, 798, 897, 879, 978, 987.

Smallest value of x = 789 + 798 + 897 + 879 + 978 + 987 = 5328

Thus, statement II is incorrect.

 

55.) There is a numeric lock which has a 3-digit PIN. The PIN contains digits 1 to 7. There is no repetition of digits. The digits in the PIN from left to right are in decreasing order. Any two digits in the PIN differ by at least 2. How many maximum attempts does one need to find out the PIN with certainty?

(A) 6 

(B) 8

(C) 10

(D) 12

ANS. A

EXP. The possible combinations are:

753, 752, 751, 742, 642, 531.

Thus 6 attempts are needed to find out the PIN with certainty.

 

56.) There are eight equidistant points on a circle. How many right-angled triangles can be drawn using these points as vertices and taking the diameter as one side of the triangle?

(A) 24 

(B) 16

(C) 12

(D) 8

ANS. A

EXP. Eight points will form 4 diameters. Each diameter can form 6 right angles with 8 points. 

Total number of right angles = 4 × 6 = 24.

 

57.) 24 men and 12 women can do a piece of work in 30 days. In how many days can 12 men and 24 women do the same piece of work?

(A) 30 days

(B) More than 30 days

(C) Less than 30 days or more than 30 days

(D) Data is inadequate to draw any conclusion

ANS. D

EXP. From the given information we can conclude that:

24 Men + 12 Women = 30 days

12 Men + 24 Women = ?

Data is inadequate to draw any conclusion. 

 

58.) What is the remainder when 91 × 92 × 93 × 94 × 95 × 96 × 97 × 98 × 99 is divided by 1261?

(A) 3

(B) 2

(C) 1

(D) 0

ANS. D

EXP.  = 

Thus, remainder will be zero.

 

59.) Consider the following statements in respect of a rectangular sheet of length 20 cm and breadth 8 cm:

I. It is possible to cut the sheet exactly into 4 square sheets.

II. It is possible to cut the sheet into 20 triangular sheets of equal area.

Which of the above statements is /are correct?

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) Both I and II

(D) Neither I nor II

ANS. C

EXP. Both of the statements are possible. Thus, C is the correct answer.

 

60.) When 70% of a number x is added to another number y, the sum becomes 165% of the value of y. when 60% of the number x is added to another number z, then the sum becomes 165% of the value of z. Which one of the following is correct?

(A) z < x < y

(B) x < y < z

(C) y < x < z

(D) z < y < x

ANS. A

EXP. 0.7 x + y = 1.65 y

or  = 

Thus, y > x

Again, 0.6 x + z = 1.65 z

or  = 

or x > z

Thus, z < x < y.

 

61.) Read the following two Passage and answer the items that follow the Passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

 

The majority of people who fail to accumulate money sufficient for their needs, are generally, easily influenced by the opinions of others. They permit the newspapers and the gossiping neighbours to do their thinking for them. Opinions are the cheapest commodities on the earth. Everyone has a flock of opinions ready to be wished upon by anyone who will accept them. If you are influenced by opinions when you reach decisions, you will not succeed in any undertaking.

 

Question: Which one of the following is implied by the passage?

(A) Most of the people do not accumulate money for their needs.

(B) Most of the people never fail to accumulate money for their needs.

(C) There are people who fail to accumulate money for their needs.

(D) There is no need to accumulate money.

ANS. C

EXP. Statement C is clearly implied by the passage.

 

62.) Read the following two Passage and answer the items that follow the Passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

 

The majority of people who fail to accumulate money sufficient for their needs, are generally, easily influenced by the opinions of others. They permit the newspapers and the gossiping neighbours to do their thinking for them. Opinions are the cheapest commodities on the earth. Everyone has a flock of opinions ready to be wished upon by anyone who will accept them. If you are influenced by opinions when you reach decisions, you will not succeed in any undertaking.

 

Question: What is the main idea of the passage?

(A) People should not be influenced by the opinions of others.

(B) People should accumulate as much money as they can,

(C) People should neither give nor accept the opinions.

(D) People will succeed in undertaking if they do not accept any opinion at all.

ANS. A

EXP. The passage is about how people get influenced by the opinion of others. Therefore, statement A is correct.

 

63.) “The social order is a sacred right which is the basis of all other rights. Nevertheless, this right does not come from nature, and must therefore be founded on conventions.”

With reference to the above passage, which of the following statements is/arc correct?

1. Conventions arc the sources of rights of man.

2. Rights of man can be exercised only when there is a social order.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both l and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS. A

EXP. The passage emphasizes that the social order is the basis of all other rights, which is not natural but comes from conventions. In the light of this, it is correct that conventions are the sources of rights of man, Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

 

However, the passage does not reflect that only the social order is required for exercise of rights of man. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

 

Hence, option A is correct.

 

64.) Two candidates X and Y contested an election. 80% of voters cast their vote and there were no invalid votes. There was no NOTA (none of the above) option. X got 56% of the votes cast and won by 1440 votes. What is the total number of voters in the voters list?

(A) 15000

(B) 12000

(C) 9600

(D) 5000

ANS. A

EXP. Let total number of voters = x

Voters casted their vote = 0.8x

X got 56% of 0.8x = 0.448x

Y got 0.8x – 0.448 x = 0.352x

Difference = 0.448x – 0.352x = 0.096x

0.096x = 1440

or x =  = 15000

thus, total voters in the voter list = 15000

 

65.) What is the smallest number greater that 1000 that when divided by any one of the numbers 6, 9, 12, 15, 18 leaves a remainder of 3?

(A) 1063

(B) 1073

(C) 1083

(D) 1183

ANS. C

EXP. LCM of 6, 9, 12, 15 and 18 is 120.

So, the number will be 3 more than multiple of 120 which in just greater than 1000.

Thus, required number = 120 × 9 + 3 = 1083

 

66.) Let p be a two – digit number and q be the number consisting of same digits written in reverse order. If p × q = 2430, then what is the difference between p and q?

(A) 45

(B) 27

(C) 18

(D) 9

ANS. D

EXP. Let the two digits are a and b.

Then p = 10b + a

and q = 10a + b

Since p × q = 2430

or (10b + a) (10a + b) = 2430

or 100 ab + 10  + 10  + ab = 2430

or 10  + 10  + 20 ab = 2430 – 81 ab

or 10  = 2430 – 81 ab

or  = 243 – 

That means product of a and b should be a multiple of 10.

Let ab = 10

Then  = 243 – 81 = 162 (which is not square of any number)

Now ab = 20

Then  = 243 – 162 = 81 (which is a perfect square)

Thus, a + b = 9

And ab = 20, which gives

a = 5 and b = 4

Thus, p = 45 and q = 54

Difference between p and q = 54 – 45 = 9

 

67.) Consider the following statements in respect of two natural numbers p and q such that p is a prime number and q is a composite number.

1. p × q can be an odd number.

2.  can be a prime number.

3. p + q can be a prime number.

Which of the above statements are correct:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3 only

ANS. D

EXP. Statement 1:

Let p = 3 and q = 9

p × q = 3 × 9 = 27 which is an odd number.

 

Statement 2:

Let p = 3 and q = 15

 =  = 5, which is a prime number

 

Statement 3:

Let p = 2 and q = 9

p + q = 2 + 9 = 11, which is a prime number

Thus, all statements are correct.

 

68.) Consider the following statements

1. Between 3:16 p.m. and 3:17 p.m., both hour hand and minute hand coincide.

2. Between 4:58 p.m. and 4:59 p.m., both minute hand and second hand coincide.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

ANS. A

EXP. Statement 1 is correct and II is incorrect.

 

69.) There are two containers X and Y. X contains 100 ml of milk and Y contains 100 ml of water. 20 ml of milk from X is transferred to Y. After mixing well, 20 nil of the mixture in Y is transferred back to X. If m denotes the proportion of milk in X and n denotes the proportion of water in Y, then which one of the following is correct?

(A) m = n

(B) m > n

(C) m < n

(D) m = n

ANS. A

EXP. After taking 20 ml of milk from container X, X will be left with 80 ml of milk while Y will have 100 ml of water and 20 ml of milk.

So in container Y, ratio of milk to water = 20 : 100 = 1 : 5

When we take 20 ml of mixture from Y, then we take water =  × 20 =  ml

And milk =  × 20 =  ml

Now milk in container X (m) = 80 +  =  

and water in container Y (n) = 100 –  = 

Thus, m = n

 

70.) A pie chart gives the expenditure. on five different items A, B, C, D and E in a household. If B, C, D and E correspond 90°, 50°, 45° and 75° respectively, then what is the percentage of expenditure on item A?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

ANS. D

EXP. Angle for A = 360 – (90 + 50 + 45 + 75) 

= 100

Percentage of expenditure for A =  × 100 = 

 

71.) Read the following Passage and answer the items that follow the Passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

To encourage research is one of the functions of a university. Contemporary universities have encouraged research, not only in those cases where research is necessary, but on all sorts of entirely unprofitable subjects as well. Scientific research is probably never completely clueless. However silly and insignificant it may seem, however mechanical and unintelligent the labours of the researchers, there is always a chance that the results may be of value to the investigator of talent, who can use the facts collected for him by uninspired but industrious researchers as the basis of some fruitful generalization. But where research is not original but consists in the mere rearrangement of existing materials, where its object is not scientific but literary or historical, then there is a risk of the whole business becoming merely futile.

 

Question: The author’s assumption about scientific research is that

(A) it is never very valuable

(B) it is sometimes very valuable

(C) it is never without some value

(D) it is always very valuable

ANS. C

EXP. The author’s assumption about scientific research is that it is never without some value. It can be easily inferred from the statement as given in the passage “Scientific research is probably never completely clueless”.

Therefore, option C is correct.

 

72.) Read the following Passage and answer the items that follow the Passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

To encourage research is one of the functions of a university. Contemporary universities have encouraged research, not only in those cases where research is necessary, but on all sorts of entirely unprofitable subjects as well. Scientific research is probably never completely clueless. However silly and insignificant it may seem, however mechanical and unintelligent the labours of the researchers, there is always a chance that the results may be of value to the investigator of talent, who can use the facts collected for him by uninspired but industrious researchers as the basis of some fruitful generalization. But where research is not original but consists in the mere rearrangement of existing materials, where its object is not scientific but literary or historical, then there is a risk of the whole business becoming merely futile.

 

Question: According to the author

(A) not many research results can be of value to an intelligent investigator

(B) a research result is always valuable to an intelligent investigator

(C) any research result can be of value to an intelligent investigator

(D) a research result must always be of some value to an intelligent investigator

ANS. C

EXP. According to the author, any research result can be of value to an intelligent investigator. This can be inferred from following lines of the passage:

 

“there is always a chance that the results may be of value to the investigator of talent, who can use the facts collected for him by uninspired but industrious researchers as the basis of some fruitful generalization”.

 

73.) Read the following Passage and answer the items that follow the Passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

How best can the problems of floods and droughts be addressed so that the losses are minimal and the system becomes resilient? In this context, one important point that needs to be noted is that India gets ‘too much' water (about 75% of annual precipitation) during 120 days (June to September) and 'too little' for the remaining 245 days. This skewed water availability has to be managed and regulated for its consumption throughout the year.

 

Question: Which one of the following best reflects the practical, rational and tasting solution?

(A) Constructing huge concrete storage tanks and canals across the country

(B) Changing the cropping patterns and farming practices

(C) Interlinking of rivers across the country

(D) Buffer stocking of water through dams and recharging aquifers

ANS. D

EXP. As it is mentioned in the passage “India gets ‘too much’ water during 120 days”, so the most practical and rational solution as given in the options is a need to buffer stock this water through dams and recharging aquifers.

 

74.) If 15 × 14 × 13 × ………….. × 3 × 2 × 1 =  × n

where m and n are positive integer, then what is the maximum value of m?

(A) 7

(B) 6

(C) 5

(D) 4

ANS. B

EXP. We will get three in:

15 = 3 × 5

12 = 3 × 4

9 = 3 × 3

6 = 3 × 3

3 = 3

Power of 3 in the multiplication will be 6.

Thus, m = 6

 

75.) What is the value of X in the sequence

2, 12, 36, 80, 150, X?

(A) 248

(B) 252

(C) 258

(D) 262

ANS. B

EXP. 2 =  + 

12 =  + 

36 =  + 

80 =  + 

150 =  + 

Similarly, next number will be:

 +  = 216 + 36 = 252

 

76.) One non-zero digit, one vowel and one consonant from English alphabet (in capital) are to be used in forming passwords, such that each password has to start with a vowel and end with a consonant. How many such passwords can be generated?

(A) 105

(B) 525

(C) 945

(D) 1050

ANS. C

EXP. The first place can be filled by 5 vowels (A, E, I, O, U)

The 2^nd place will be filled by 9 numbers (1, 2, 3, —, 9)

The 3^rd place can be filled by 21 consonants (B, C, D, F, ——, Z)

Total passwords = 5 × 9 × 21 = 945.

 

77.) There are 9 cups placed on a table arranged in equal number of rows and columns out of which 6 cups contain coffee and three cups contain tea. In how many ways can they be arranged so that each row should contain atleast one cup of coffee.

(A) 18

(B) 27

(C) 54

(D) 81

ANS. D

EXP. There can be two options. 

Option I: The rows have 1, 2 and 3 cups of coffee,

Total number of ways will be 3 × 3 × 1 × 3! = 54

 

Option II: Each row has 2 cups of coffee,

Total number of ways will be 3 × 3 × 3 = 27

Total ways = 27 + 54 = 81

 

 

78.) The sum of three consecutive integers is equal to their product. How many such possibilities are there?

(A) only one

(B) only two

(C) only three

(D) No such possibility is there

ANS. C

EXP. Let three integers be x – 1, x and x + 1

Then, x – 1 + x + x + 1 = (x – 1) × x × (x + 1)

or x = 3x

x  = 0

or x = 0, 2, -2 

Thus, it will have three solutions.

 

79.) What is the number of numbers of the form 0.XY, where X and Y are distinct non-zero digits?

(A) 72

(B) 81

(C) 90

(D) 100

ANS. A

EXP. The number is in the form of 0.XY

The possible numbers are:

0.12, 0.13, —— 0.19 (8 numbers)

0. 21, 0.23, ——0.29 (8 numbers)

In this way we get 8 × 9 = 72 numbers.

 

80.) The average weight of A, B, C is 40 kg, the average weight of B, D, E is 42 kg and the weight of F is equal to that of B. What is the average weight of A, B, C, D, E and F?

(A) 40.5 kg

(B) 40.8 kg

(C) 41 kg

(D) cannot be determined as data is inadequate

ANS. C

EXP. Average weight of A, B, C = 40

Total weight of A, B, C = 120

Average weight of B, D, E = 42

Total weight of B, D, E = 126

Total weight of A, B, B, C, D, E = 120 + 126 = 246

Since weight of F = weight of B

Total weight of A, B, C, D, E, F = 246

Average weight of A, B, C, D, E, F =  = 41 kg